Noether's Normalisation Theorem is for me something scandalous in the same way of the Jordan Curve Theorem: Its statement makes me think "This is so obviously the case, why is it any work at all to establish this holds?"
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Noether's Normalisation Theorem is for me something scandalous in the same way of the Jordan Curve Theorem: Its statement makes me think "This is so obviously the case, why is it any work at all to establish this holds?"