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Exam A QUESTION 1 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best? A. single run B. multi-homed C. stub domain EBGP D. direct BGP peering Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2 NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow? A. monitor configuration changes B. monitor CPU utilization C. monitor link utilization D. generate traps for failure conditions Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 The P4S company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum? A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor. B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router. C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers. D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point. Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4 What is high availability? A. redundant infrastructure B. clustering of computer systems C. reduced MTBF D. continuous operation of computing systems Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)? A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone. B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon. C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone. D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be originated by this router? A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at P4S-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here? A. It will take P4S-R2. B. It will not take any path. P4S-R4 will drop the traffic. C. It will take P4S-R3. D. It will load share between P4S-R2 and P4S-R3. Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.) A. NICs are used for network connectivity. B. Servers request specific blocks of data. C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers. D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices. Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9 The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route? A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated. B. It will be removed from the BGP table. C. It will be considered a valid route. D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router P4S-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router P4S-RC only has one path in its topology table?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon. B. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor. C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon. D. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?

B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12 Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes? A. dynamic reconfiguration B. path MTU discovery C. auto setup D. remote management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13 What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack? A. source of the attack B. type of attack C. target of the attack D. priority of the attack traffic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.) A. reverse the direction of an attack B. redirect an attack away from its target C. monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity D. delay an attack from reaching its target

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 15 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted packets). What is the maximum number of queries P4S-R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link between P4S-R1 and P4S-R2 fails?

A. four queries, one each from P4S-R2, P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 B. no queries, because there aren't any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24 C. seven queries, one from P4S-R2 and two each from P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 D. one query, since the remote routers P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16 All routers in this network are running EIGRP according to the exhibit. Which step is the most important to make sure that this network core will converge quickly should a link failure occur?

A. make certain the maximum number of paths on both of the routers is two B. make certain EIGRP is not running across non-transit links C. add another link between the two routers with no servers and set the metric on this new link equal to the other four links D. make certain EIGRP is running across all links Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17 When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.) A. rate limit voice traffic B. onfigure spanning-tree for fast link convergence C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs D. classify and mark traffic close to the source Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18 Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.) A. to increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree B. to aggregate reachability information C. to provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network D. to segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 19 The P4S company is planning to deploy a new multicast application in its network to do real-time trading. This application will be performed simultaneously by thousands of traders located throughout the network, each a source of several IP multicast streams, to carry the "sell" and "buy" trading bids. All routers in its network have full hardware support for all PIM multicast modes. Which mode can be used to minimize the impact of the new application on the routers in the P4S network?

A. PIM Source Specific Multicast B. PIM Any-Source Multicast C. PIM Dense Mode D. PIM Bidirectional Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20 You work as a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully, router P4S-RA is the hub router in a Frame Relay hub-and-spoke deployment. Configure router P4S-RA's serial interface as a point-to-multipoint interface, and it is servicing three spoke routers. The link between Router P4S-RC and the frame provider experiences a service disruption, which causes the interface on Router P4S-RC to go down. How does Router P4S-RA learn of this failure in the network and how does it react?

A. If OAM is configured between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC, router P4S-RA will be notified of the failure after three missed OAM packets. After the third OAM packet is missed, the frame PVC becomes inactive, and this event terminates the routing process neighbor relationship established between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC. B. Router P4S-RA does not detect the failure in the network and its interface continues to remain in an operational state. If routing is configured over this link, Router P4S-RA must wait for the neighbor relationship to time-out before updating its routing table to account for the lost router and its networks. C. Router P4S-RA must wait for a full LMI status update from the provider frame switch before it is notified about the PVC status. Once the full LMI status message is received, the routing process neighbor relationship between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC is immediately terminated.

D. Router P4S-RA immediately detects the failure via LMI notification and its interface is placed in a non-operational state. If routing is configured over this link, the neighbor relationship is terminated and the routing table is updated. The change is then propagated as appropriate to the rest of the network. Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.) A. QoS must be set to Silver B. WMM must be enabled C. QoS must be set to Gold D. QoS must be set to Platinum Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22 In this network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at router P4S-RC, only one path can be seen towards 10.1.1.0/24. Which description is correct?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to router P4S-RC due to a split horizon B. EIGRP should advertise all available paths to 10.1.1.0/24 in the local topology table to all neighbors so this condition is a bug C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to a split horizon D. Router P4S-RC should have two paths to 10.1.1.0/24, while routers P4S-RB and P4S-RD should each have only one path, indicating a route filter has been applied on Router P4S-RC Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23 Which three types of LSA could each trigger a partial SPF? (Choose three.) A. type 2 LSA (Network Link Advertisements) B. type 3 LSA (ABR Summary Link Advertisements) C. type 4 LSA (ASBR Summary Link Advertisements) D. type 5 LSA (Autonomous System External Link Advertisements) Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24 You are a network technician for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. P4S-R1 is redistributing 10.1.5.0/24 into Area 1 in this network. Which LSA containing 10.1.5.0/24 will P4S-R6 have in its database?

A. P4S-R6 will have a border router (type 4) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24. B. P4S-R6 will have an NSSA external (type 7) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24. C. P4S-R6 will have an external (type 5) LSA for 10.1.5.0/24 in its local database. D. P4S-R6 will not have any LSAs containing 10.1.5.0/24. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25 You are a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network are equal cost, and P4S-R1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route are displayed on the diagram. Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?

A. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the P4S-R4- P4S-R3 link. B. P4S-R1 will not use P4S-R4 and P4S-R3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path. C. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R1. D. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R3.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26 Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control within existing H.323 environments?

A. single site with centralized call processing B. single site with distributed call processing C. multisite with centralized call processing D. multisite with distributed call processing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two.) A. to improve optimal routing within the network B. to reduce the impact of topology changes C. to reduce the amount of information any specific router within the network must store and process D. to isolate the impact of DDoS attacks

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 28 Configure routers P4S-RE and P4S-RF as route reflectors of router P4S-RA in this network presented in the following exhibit. When router P4S-RC transmits a route to router P4S-RA, which router or routers will router P4S-RA send an update to?

A. only EBGP routers, except router P4S-RC B. all routers, except router P4S-C C. only iBGP routers D. only route reflector clients

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29 Which way can most effectively improve BGP convergence in the event that a point-to-point link, over which an EBGP session is running, fails? A. use BGP multihop B. configure EBGP fast external fallover C. enable BGP graceful restart D. reduce the keepalive timer to the minimum value allowed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate? A. Layer 2 mode B. Layer 2 Edge mode C. Layer 3 mode D. Layer 3 In-Band mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31 According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router P4S-RB and Router P4S-RC are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently. How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it?

A. create another link between Router P4S-RA in AS1 and ISP A B. configure two static routes in Router P4S-RA for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router P4S-RB and Router P4S-RC C. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router P4S-RB and Router P4S-RC D. configure iBGP between Router P4S-RB and Router P4S-RC to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32 Study the exhibit carefully. In this network, configure P4S-R1, P4S-R2, and P4S-R3 in EIGRP AS 100, and configure P4S-R3 and P4S-R4 in EIGRP AS 200. P4S-R3 is configured to redistribute between the two EIGRP autonomous systems. Then, P4S-R1 loses its connection to 192.168.1.0/24. Which source will P4S-R4 receive a query from, or if it will not receive a query, why not?

A. P4S-R4 will not receive any queries for 192.168.1.0/24, because it's not in the same autonomous system as P4S-R1 or 192.168.1.0/24. B. P4S-R4 will not receive any queries for 192.168.1.0/24. P4S-R1 will not generate any queries for this destination because there are no other paths available in the network. C. P4S-R4 will receive one query for 192.168.1.0/24 from P4S-R1 itself, since P4S-R1 has lost its connection to the destination. D. P4S-R4 will receive one query. Once AS100 has converged, P4S-R3 will have no route to 192.168.1.0/24, so it will initiate a query into AS 200.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33 Which reason is correct about carrying routes that originate outside your network in an EGP, such as BGP, rather than in your IGP, such as OSPF, EIGRP, or IS-IS? A. to provide faster convergence to destinations outside your network B. to prevent failures outside your network from impacting your internal network operation C. to provide a growth path for the core of your network D. to provide better control over the distribution of the default route inside your network

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34 The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by-hop (router-to-router) basis? A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor B. CiscoView C. Device Fault Manager D. Internetwork Performance Monitor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35 Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies? A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level B. redundant servers at the access level C. modular block design at the access level D. high port densities at the access level

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36 Which is the reason that EIGRP uses queries? A. to test known alternate paths and determine if they are loop-free B. to find alternate loop-free paths that have been discarded due to split horizons C. to test for neighbor state when the network topology is in flux D. to withdraw routing information from the network

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37 In a single broadcast domain, connect three routers via a standard Ethernet switch. STP is the only Layer 2 protocol running on this link. EIGRP is the only Layer 3 protocol running on this link, which uses a standard configuration. Then, one of the three routers is manually shut down. How will the other two routers discover the loss of this neighbor? A. The switch will send a reverse ARP when the router disconnects from the switch. B. The line protocol on the remaining two routers will be brought down as soon as the carrier is lost from the switch. C. The EIGRP dead timers will expire due to the absence of EIGRP traffic. D. The switch will bring down the carrier on all ports momentarily to force all the routers connected to the link to relearn their neighbors. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38 Which two network design principles does this network violate on the basis of the following exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. hierarchy B. predictability C. fault tolerance D. modularity

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 39 A Fibre Channel fabric (or Fibre Channel switched fabric, FC-SW) is a switched fabric of Fibre Channel devices enabled by a Fibre Channel switch. Fabrics are normally subdivided by Fibre Channel zoning. Each fabric has a name server and provides other services. Higher redundancy over FC-AL, P2P.Which path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?

A. OSPF B. RIP C. FSPF D. VSANs

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40 While deploying IGP non-stop forwarding (NSF), which practice is the best for tuning routing protocol hello and dead timers? A. The hello and dead timers should be tuned to allow NSF to continue forwarding after an initial failure detection. B. The routing protocol hello and dead timers should be decreased to the minimum. C. NSF-independent timers should be used so that routing protocol timers have no effect. D. The hello and dead timers should be tuned so the link failure is detected before NSF has the chance to react to the failure.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41 Which is the reason that H-VPLS is considered more scalable than flat VPLS? A. It minimizes signaling overhead by building two separate layers pseudowire meshes. B. It minimizes signaling overhead by only requiring a full pseudowire mesh among N-PEs. C. It eliminates signaling overhead between the N-PE and U-PE. D. It eliminates signaling overhead on core devices.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 42 In a DMVPN network with next-hop servers, which two configurations provide redundancy? (Choose two.) A. one tunnel interface configured to run over two DMVPN clouds B. two DMVPN clouds configured with one tunnel interface each C. two DMVPN clouds configured with two next-hop servers using anycast addresses D. two next-hop servers configured to use a single tunnel interface within one DMVPN cloud

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 43 Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two.) A. bandwidth efficiency B. cell-switching C. congestion notification D. heterogeneous network

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 44 A service provider would like to maximize forwarding memory, routing memory, and CPU resources on PE devices for enterprise customers having very few sites (two to three) and a large number of prefixes (several thousand). Which service should be offered by the service provider to these customers? A. VPWS B. InterAS L3VPN C. VPLS D. L3VPNs (RFC 2547-based)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45 In a network, all routers deploy FIFO queuing. The primary application running on the network is data backup by use of FTP. At certain times, users experience cyclical performance degradation. Which two items can mitigate this problem and help ensure bandwidth is used effectively in the network? (Choose two.) A. traffic policing B. CB-WFQ C. MDRR D. WRED

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best? A. single run B. multi-homed C. stub domain EBGP D. direct BGP peering Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2 NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow? A. monitor configuration changes B. monitor CPU utilization C. monitor link utilization D. generate traps for failure conditions Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 The P4S company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum? A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor. B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router. C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers. D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point. Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4 What is high availability? A. redundant infrastructure B. clustering of computer systems C. reduced MTBF D. continuous operation of computing systems Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)? A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone. B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon. C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone. D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be originated by this router? A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at P4S-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here? A. It will take P4S-R2. B. It will not take any path. P4S-R4 will drop the traffic. C. It will take P4S-R3. D. It will load share between P4S-R2 and P4S-R3. Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.) A. NICs are used for network connectivity. B. Servers request specific blocks of data. C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers. D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices. Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9 The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route? A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated. B. It will be removed from the BGP table. C. It will be considered a valid route. D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router P4S-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router P4S-RC only has one path in its topology table?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon. B. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor. C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon. D. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?

B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12 Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes? A. dynamic reconfiguration B. path MTU discovery C. auto setup D. remote management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13 What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack? A. source of the attack B. type of attack C. target of the attack D. priority of the attack traffic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.) A. reverse the direction of an attack B. redirect an attack away from its target C. monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity D. delay an attack from reaching its target

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 15 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted packets). What is the maximum number of queries P4S-R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link between P4S-R1 and P4S-R2 fails?

A. four queries, one each from P4S-R2, P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 B. no queries, because there aren't any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24 C. seven queries, one from P4S-R2 and two each from P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 D. one query, since the remote routers P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16 All routers in this network are running EIGRP according to the exhibit. Which step is the most important to make sure that this network core will converge quickly should a link failure occur?

A. make certain the maximum number of paths on both of the routers is two B. make certain EIGRP is not running across non-transit links C. add another link between the two routers with no servers and set the metric on this new link equal to the other four links D. make certain EIGRP is running across all links Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17 When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.) A. rate limit voice traffic B. onfigure spanning-tree for fast link convergence C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs D. classify and mark traffic close to the source Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18 Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.) A. to increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree B. to aggregate reachability information C. to provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network D. to segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 19 The P4S company is planning to deploy a new multicast application in its network to do real-time trading. This application will be performed simultaneously by thousands of traders located throughout the network, each a source of several IP multicast streams, to carry the "sell" and "buy" trading bids. All routers in its network have full hardware support for all PIM multicast modes. Which mode can be used to minimize the impact of the new application on the routers in the P4S network?

A. PIM Source Specific Multicast B. PIM Any-Source Multicast C. PIM Dense Mode D. PIM Bidirectional Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20 You work as a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully, router P4S-RA is the hub router in a Frame Relay hub-and-spoke deployment. Configure router P4S-RA's serial interface as a point-to-multipoint interface, and it is servicing three spoke routers. The link between Router P4S-RC and the frame provider experiences a service disruption, which causes the interface on Router P4S-RC to go down. How does Router P4S-RA learn of this failure in the network and how does it react?

A. If OAM is configured between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC, router P4S-RA will be notified of the failure after three missed OAM packets. After the third OAM packet is missed, the frame PVC becomes inactive, and this event terminates the routing process neighbor relationship established between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC. B. Router P4S-RA does not detect the failure in the network and its interface continues to remain in an operational state. If routing is configured over this link, Router P4S-RA must wait for the neighbor relationship to time-out before updating its routing table to account for the lost router and its networks. C. Router P4S-RA must wait for a full LMI status update from the provider frame switch before it is notified about the PVC status. Once the full LMI status message is received, the routing process neighbor relationship between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC is immediately terminated.

D. Router P4S-RA immediately detects the failure via LMI notification and its interface is placed in a non-operational state. If routing is configured over this link, the neighbor relationship is terminated and the routing table is updated. The change is then propagated as appropriate to the rest of the network. Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.) A. QoS must be set to Silver B. WMM must be enabled C. QoS must be set to Gold D. QoS must be set to Platinum Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22 In this network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at router P4S-RC, only one path can be seen towards 10.1.1.0/24. Which description is correct?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to router P4S-RC due to a split horizon B. EIGRP should advertise all available paths to 10.1.1.0/24 in the local topology table to all neighbors so this condition is a bug C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to a split horizon D. Router P4S-RC should have two paths to 10.1.1.0/24, while routers P4S-RB and P4S-RD should each have only one path, indicating a route filter has been applied on Router P4S-RC Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23 Which three types of LSA could each trigger a partial SPF? (Choose three.) A. type 2 LSA (Network Link Advertisements) B. type 3 LSA (ABR Summary Link Advertisements) C. type 4 LSA (ASBR Summary Link Advertisements) D. type 5 LSA (Autonomous System External Link Advertisements) Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24 You are a network technician for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. P4S-R1 is redistributing 10.1.5.0/24 into Area 1 in this network. Which LSA containing 10.1.5.0/24 will P4S-R6 have in its database?

A. P4S-R6 will have a border router (type 4) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24. B. P4S-R6 will have an NSSA external (type 7) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24. C. P4S-R6 will have an external (type 5) LSA for 10.1.5.0/24 in its local database. D. P4S-R6 will not have any LSAs containing 10.1.5.0/24. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25 You are a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network are equal cost, and P4S-R1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route are displayed on the diagram. Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?

A. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the P4S-R4- P4S-R3 link. B. P4S-R1 will not use P4S-R4 and P4S-R3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path. C. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R1. D. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R3.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26 Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control within existing H.323 environments?

A. single site with centralized call processing B. single site with distributed call processing C. multisite with centralized call processing D. multisite with distributed call processing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two.) A. to improve optimal routing within the network B. to reduce the impact of topology changes C. to reduce the amount of information any specific router within the network must store and process D. to isolate the impact of DDoS attacks

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 28 Configure routers P4S-RE and P4S-RF as route reflectors of router P4S-RA in this network presented in the following exhibit. When router P4S-RC transmits a route to router P4S-RA, which router or routers will router P4S-RA send an update to?

A. only EBGP routers, except router P4S-RC B. all routers, except router P4S-C C. only iBGP routers D. only route reflector clients

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29 Which way can most effectively improve BGP convergence in the event that a point-to-point link, over which an EBGP session is running, fails? A. use BGP multihop B. configure EBGP fast external fallover C. enable BGP graceful restart D. reduce the keepalive timer to the minimum value allowed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30 You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate? A. Layer 2 mode B. Layer 2 Edge mode C. Layer 3 mode D. Layer 3 In-Band mode

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1 A company plans to include Nonstop Forwarding and Bidirectional Forwarding Detection as a part of their network redundancy plan. In which two ways do NSF and BFD work together when different hardware platforms are compared? (Choose two.) A. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the NSF feature will always ensure that the BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down independent of the used hardware platform. B. At some hardware platforms, BFD and NSF are not supported together. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the BFD at the peer router will trigger a link down. C. To ensure that BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down during NSF, the BFD packets must be processed fast enough, and, during supervisor engine or routing engine failover, by processing the BFD independent from the supervisor engine or routing engine. D. Because BFD is always processed at the line cards (not at the supervisor engine or routing engine), a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will not affect the BFD peer router. E. Because BFD is always processed at the supervisor engine or routing engine, a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will always trigger a link down at the peer router.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.

A service provider would like to use Ethernet OAM to detect end-to-end connectivity failures between SP-SW1 and SP-SW2. In which two of these ways can you design this solution? (Choose two.) A. Enable Y.1731 Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches. B. E-LMI PDUs must be forwarded over VPLS. C. Cisco Discovery Protocol PDUs must be forwarded over the VPLS. D. Use upward maintenance endpoints on the SP switches. E. Enable IEEE 802.1ag Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 3 A network design shows two routers directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution will ensure that interface down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP? A. optimized OSPF SPF timers B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection C. automatic protection switching D. optimized OSPF LSA timers E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4 A network designer is working with a company to improve convergence at the Layer 2 control plane and decides to use LACP. Which of these components does LACP use to create the system ID? A. LACP system priority and switch MAC address B. LACP port priority and switch MAC address C. LACP port priority and port number D. LACP system priority and port number

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.

You are designing a spanning-tree network for a small campus. Which two of these options would result in a trouble-free spanning-tree network design? (Choose two.) A. Convert all ports to trunk ports, prune off the VLANs that you do not require, and minimize the number of blocking ports. B. Introduce Layer 3 VLANs (SVIs) and prune off the VLANs that you do not require. C. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable BackboneFast. D. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable UplinkFast between all the links.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 6 A network designer is redesigning an enterprise campus network to ensure that Ethernet switches proactively attempt to reconnect after a fiber cut. In the design, they will have to address areas where fiber cuts exist on campus from past troubleshooting, where a single fiber is disconnected in the fiber pair, leading to looping. Which feature could be implemented in the design to allow the Spanning Tree Protocol on the switches to be protected? A. loop guard B. UniDirectional Link Detection C. UniDirectional Link Detection aggressive mode D. root guard

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7 A switched network is being designed to support a manufacturing factory. Due to cost constraints, fiber-based connectivity is not an option. Which design allows for a stable network when there is a risk of interference from the manufacturing hardware in use on the factory floor? A. Design the network to include UDLD to detect unidirectional links and take them out of service. B. Design the network to include EtherChannel bundles to prevent a single-link failure from taking down a switch interconnection point. C. Design the network to include loop guard to prevent a loop in the switched network when a link has too much interference. D. Design the network to include BackboneFast on all devices to accelerate failure convergence times.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.

If IEEE 802.1w is in use for this network design, what are two locations where spanning-tree root can be placed to ensure the least-disruptive Layer 2 failover for clients within VLANs 3 and 4? (Choose two.) A. Switch A B. Switch B C. Switch C D. Switch D

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 9 A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with one box redundant to the Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without producing any Layer 2 loops within the network design? A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled. B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled. C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled. D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled. E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled. F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled. G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.

Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches. In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP are configured on the aggregation switches. In which three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application performance? (Choose three.) A. Use loop guard on access ports. B. Use PortFast on access ports. C. Use root guard on access ports. D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths. E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports. F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 11 You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.) A. EtherChannel B. MST C. Multichassis EtherChannel D. PVST+

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 12 Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their original 10-Mb service in order to provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service due to the voice stability on the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic when both links are active? A. per-destination IP address basis B. per-flow basis C. per-packet basis D. per-source IP address basis

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13 You work as a network designer for a company that is replacing their Frame Relay WAN with an MPLS VPN service, where the PE-to-CE routing protocol is BGP. The company has 3000 routes in their distribution routers, and they would like to advertise their access routers through the MPLS network. Their service provider, however, only supports 1000 prefixes per VRF. Which two design solutions can be applied to ensure that your access routers will be able to reach all devices in your network? (Choose two.) A. Use prefix lists on your distribution routers to control which routes are sent to the MPLS network. B. On your distribution routers, configure null routes and aggregate routes for the prefixes in your network. C. Configure your distribution routers to send a default route to the MPLS network. D. Summarize the routes on the MPLS WAN interfaces of your distribution routers.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14 You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network? A. The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge. B. The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired. C. The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge. D. The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the routers will immediately converge. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit.

Acme Corporation hired you as a network designer to upgrade their network so that it supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast. Which two protocols are needed on the LAN switch? (Choose two.) A. PIM sparse mode B. IGMP snooping C. PIM snooping D. Source Specific Multicast E. MLD snooping

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 16 A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design. What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design? A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network. B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts. C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets. D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17 A customer is using a service provider to provide a WAN backbone for a 30-site network. In establishing the network, the customer must work within these constraints:

The customer has a self-managed MPLS backbone.

The VPLS WAN backbone of the service provider does not support PIM snooping.

Multicast VPN must be used for multicast support inside some VRFs.

What can the customer do so that multicast traffic is NOT flooded to all sites? A. Configure static GRE tunnels and run the MPLS and multicast VPN inside these GRE tunnels. B. Use Label Switched Multicast for the multicast transport. C. Use PIM-SSM as the multicast routing protocol with IETF Rosen Draft multicast VPN. D. Configure a static mapping between multicast addresses and MAC addresses. E. Use GET VPN to encrypt the multicast packets inside the WAN. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 What are two design advantages to using virtual port channel? (Choose two.) A. enhanced system availability through multiple systems B. reduced Spanning Tree Protocol convergence time C. loop management without use of Spanning Tree Protocol D. ability to use Spanning Tree Protocol blocked ports to forward traffic E. enhanced ability to recover from Spanning Tree Protocol changes Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.

In this design, which technology would provide for the best use of resources to provide end-to- end Layer 2 connectivity? A. MSTP B. PAgP C. Multichassis EtherChannel D. LACP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20 What are three key design principles when using a classic hierarchical network model? (Choose three.) A. The core layer controls access to resources for security. B. The core layer should be configured with minimal complexity. C. The core layer is designed first, followed by the distribution layer and then the access layer. D. A hierarchical network design model aids fault isolation. E. The core layer provides server access in a small campus. F. A hierarchical network design facilitates changes.

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 21 Which three techniques can be used to improve fault isolation in an enterprise network design? (Choose three.) A. aggregate routing information on an OSPF ABR B. fully meshed distribution layer C. Equal-Cost Multipath routing D. EIGRP query boundaries E. multiple IS-IS flooding domains F. tuned Spanning Tree Protocol timers Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 22 When you design a network, when would it be required to leak routes into a Level 1 area? A. when a multicast RP is configured in the nonbackbone area B. when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas C. when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas D. when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.

In this network design, where should summarization occur to provide the best summarization and optimal paths during a single-failure incident as well as during normal operation? A. a single identical summary for all the branch offices placed on routers 1A, 1B, 2A, and 2B B. two summaries on 1A and 1B, and two summaries on 2A and 2B C. a single identical summary on 3A and 3B D. a single summary on each aggregation device for the branches connected to them

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24 What are two benefits of following a structured hierarchical and modular design? (Choose two.) A. Each component can be designed independently for its role. B. Each component can be managed independently based on its role. C. Each component can be funded by different organizations based on its role. D. Each component can support multiple roles based on the requirements. E. Each component can provide redundancy for applications and services.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 25 In a large enterprise network with multiple data centers and thousands of access devices, OSPF is becoming unstable due to link flapping. The current design has the access devices multihomed to large aggregation routers at each of the data centers. How would you redesign the network to improve stability? A. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers. B. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers. C. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device. D. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26 During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area? A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs. B. The SPF calculations are more complex. C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased. D. The size of the FIB is increased.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27 A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.) A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same. B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same. C. The RIB will increase significantly. D. The FIB will increase significantly. E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly. F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.

Correct Answer: EF QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit.

The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart-aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices? A. via CE A and CE B B. via CE A C. via CE B D. no WAN routes will be accessible

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29 Refer to the exhibit.

How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network? A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR. B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures. C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B. D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30 A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements? A. IBGP B. EBGP C. OSPF D. static routes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31 A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.) A. MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the backbone. B. MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths. C. MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network. D. MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation. E. MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit.

Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why? A. CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2. B. CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP. C. CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1. D. CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33 Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.) A. BFD B. fast hello packets C. UDLD D. IP Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 34 In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.) A. reduces processing load B. provides sub-second convergence C. improves network stability D. prevents routing loops E. quickly detects network failures Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 35 You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol? A. Incremental Shortest Path First B. Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute C. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute D. partial route calculation E. Fast-Flooding

Correct Answer: C

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