Feb 21
can any linguistics people explain to me why an infinative verb is different to a gerund? I am especially confused about this when it comes to languages with freer word order which inflect for case, since it seems like they often take the position of an object, but are not marked any differently than if they were a "subject".
My understanding of verbs and verb syntax is very rudimentary, so I'm sure I'm mixing up a lot of concepts here!