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QUESTION 139 System tailoring is accomplished by setting optional system parameters and, therefore, has an impact on system performance and security. Control techniques for system's software include: A. Setting appropriate system parameters and security options for operating system B. Verifying the accuracy of output through manual or automated reconciliation activities C. Using the security features of security software effectively D. Controlling procurement and maintainace of software licenses 77-853 exam Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 140 Feasibility studies and cost benefit analysis Approval process for initiating system development andimplementation of systems that are developed Change control procedures for new system developmentsand modifications to existing systems to ensure that only authorized changes are moved to productionGeneral and detailed design specification Project review, including periodic milestones reviews and postimplementation reviews Contracting procedures that include the requirements for describing expectedproject deliverables such as system components and source codes, project timeframes, estimated hours,and the maximum allowable expenses for each phase These are some of the standards of: A. System development methodology B. Output controls C. Security controls D. Collection of Classified information Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 141 COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is based on existing InformationSystems Audit and Control Foundation, control objectives enhanced with existing and emerginginternational technical, professional, regulatory, and industry-specific standards. COBIT has four domainsor high-level classifications. Which is of the following is NOT out of those domains? A. Planning and organization B. Acquisition and implementation C. Delivery and support D. Evaluation 77-853 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 142 The purpose of audits of financial statements is to issue an opinion on the fairness of the financial statements and to evaluate all of the following assertions (explicit or implicit) by management EXCEPT: A. Existence or occurrence assertions address whether available information addresses actualtransactions, assets, and liabilities B. completeness assertions address whether all material financial information is included infinancial statements C. Rights and obligations assertions address whether the entity has legal rights to the assets andobligations to the liabilities disclosed on the financial statements D. Presentation and disclosure assertions address whether the elements of the financialstatements are properly organized, classified and disclosed Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 143 Standards related to information technology are not as well-developed or universally accepted asstandards in some other audit areas. Financial statements that are fairly presented meet the following____________: Generally accepted accounting principles are used Appropriate accounting principles areused Financial statements address matters that may affect their use or interpretation Financial statementsclassify and summarize information in a reasonable manner Financial statements reflect underlyingtransactions and events in a way that facilitates the presentation of the financial position, results ofoperation , and cash flows A. Limitations B. Guidelines C. Objective controls D. Processing controls 77-853 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 144 The balance sheet is the fundamental report of a company's financial position. An examination of a balance sheet will assist in determining: A. If the company meets its financial obligations B. The amount of money invested in outside the company C. The company's debt ratio D. The type of assets that company has purchased with its debt financing Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 145 A statement of cash flows in a financial report that shows incoming and outgoing money during a particularperiod (often monthly or quarterly). It does not include _________ items such as depreciation. Thestatement is a useful tool for determining the short-term viability of a company, particularly its ability to paybills. A. Non-cash B. Depreciation related C. Depletion related D. Lon-term debt 77-853 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 146 Off-balance-sheet usually means an asset or debt or financing activity not on the company's balance sheet. It could involve a lease or a separate subsidiary or a contingent liability such as ___________. A. A letter of credit B. Scrutiny C. Debt securities D. Term papers Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 147 Commercial, residential and consumer are three basic types of: A. Short term working capital loans B. Asset-based financing C. Installment loans D. Loans 77-853 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 148 _____________ loans allow the consumer to repay a loan over a set period. They require periodicprincipal and interest payments The loan is generally secured by the item being purchased. Automobileloans or real estate mortgage loans are common types of such types of loans. A. Installment loans B. Consumer loans C. Residential loans D. Asset-based loans Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 149 "These are usually secured by mortgages, deeds of trust, land contracts, or other types of real estate liens.Interest rates for residential mortgages loans may be fixed or variable. Repayments of principal may be setup for full amortization, negative amortization, or partial amortization with a balloon payment at a specifiedrate." What are these? A. Asset-based loans B. Residential loans C. Consumer loans D. Term loans 77-853 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 150 All lending institutions assume some loans will not be repaid and thus estimate the losses they expect fromtheir loan portfolio. Management of the lending institution sets a reserve for loan losses at a given pointbased on factors such as: A. The number and type of loans made B. The quality of loans made C. The number of problem loans D. All of these Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 151 Exception reports generated by the lending institution are designed to identify past-due loans. Auditorsshould review these exception reports to identify an unusually high number of exceptions and old orunusual exceptions that might indicate that: A. The institution is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner B. The institution is following up on exceptions in a timely manner C. The auditor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner D. The competitor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner 77-853 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 152 Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible and charge them off against the reserve for loanlosses. Auditors should ensure that the institution has developed adequate criteria for charge-offs andselect a sample of charged-off loans whether they are handled properly.Another useful test is: A. To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid inorder to determine whether they meet the charge-off criteria and assess why they have not been charged off B. To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the past criteria and assess why they have not been charged off C. To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the charge-off criteria and assess why they have not been charged off D. To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the charge-off criteria to meet the current requirements Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 153 Deposit accounts are either interest bearing or non-interest bearing. Interest bearing accounts includes_________ and ___________. The types of accounts bear interest for a fixed period of time and areknown as time deposits. A. Savings accounts, certificates of deposit B. Savings accounts, term deposit C. Certificate of deposit, Savings accounts and certificates of deposit D. Savings accounts, certificates of deposit and non-interesting bearing account 77-853 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 154 In the United States, banks are required to report cash deposits that exceed $10,000 a day to any oneaccount, regardless of how many branches or deposits have been used in the transactions. Banks are alsorequired to report when cash is used to purchase cashier's checks, money orders, traveler's checks, orbank checks in excess of $3000. In the Untied States, accounts are federally insured by the FederalDeposit Insurance Corporations (FDIC). An individual is limited to __________ in insurance coverage ateach bank (including branches). A. $50,000 B. $75,000 C. $100,000 D. $10,000 Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 136 Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies? A. Risk assessment criteria B. Organizational objectives and risk appetite C. IT architecture complexity D. Enterprise disaster recovery plans 100-105  exam Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: While defining risk management strategies, one needs to analyze the organization's objectives and risk appetite and define a risk management framework based on this analysis. Some organizations may accept known risks, while others may invest in and apply mitigation controls to reduce risks. Risk assessment criteria would become part of this framework, but only after proper analysis. IT architecture complexity and enterprise disaster recovery plans are more directly related to assessing risks than defining strategies.

QUESTION 137 When implementing effective security governance within the requirements of the company's security strategy, which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider? A. Preserving the confidentiality of sensitive data B. Establishing international security standards for data sharing C. Adhering to corporate privacy standards D. Establishing system manager responsibility for information security Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The goal of information security is to protect the organization's information assets. International security standards are situational, depending upon the company and its business. Adhering to corporate privacy standards is important, but those standards must be appropriate and adequate and are not the most important factor to consider. All employees are responsible for information security, but it is not the most important factor to consider.

QUESTION 138 Which of the following is the BEST reason to perform a business impact analysis (BIA)? A. To help determine the current state of risk B. To budget appropriately for needed controls C. To satisfy regulatory requirements D. To analyze the effect on the business 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The BIA is included as part of the process to determine the current state of risk and helps determine the acceptable levels of response from impacts and the current level of response, leading to a gap analysis. Budgeting appropriately may come as a result, but is not the reason to perform the analysis. Performing an analysis may satisfy regulatory requirements, bill is not the reason to perform one. Analyzing the effect on the business is part of the process, but one must also determine the needs or acceptable effect or response.

QUESTION 139 A risk mitigation report would include recommendations for: A. assessment. B. acceptance C. evaluation. D. quantification. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Acceptance of a risk is an alternative to be considered in the risk mitigation process. Assessment. evaluation and risk quantification are components of the risk analysis process that are completed prior to determining risk mitigation solutions.

QUESTION 140 A risk management program should reduce risk to: A. zero. B. an acceptable level. C. an acceptable percent of revenue. D. an acceptable probability of occurrence. 100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risk should be reduced to an acceptable level based on the risk preference of the organization. Reducing risk to zero is impractical and could be cost-prohibitive. Tying risk to a percentage of revenue is inadvisable since there is no direct correlation between the two. Reducing the probability of risk occurrence may not always be possible, as in the ease of natural disasters. The focus should be on reducing the impact to an acceptable level to the organization, not reducing the probability of the risk.

QUESTION 141 The MOST important reason for conducting periodic risk assessments is because: A. risk assessments are not always precise. B. security risks are subject to frequent change. C. reviewers can optimize and reduce the cost of controls. D. it demonstrates to senior management that the security function can add value. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risks are constantly changing. A previously conducted risk assessment may not include measured risks that have been introduced since the last assessment. Although an assessment can never be perfect and invariably contains some errors, this is not the most important reason for periodic reassessment. The fact that controls can be made more efficient to reduce costs is not sufficient. Finally, risk assessments should not be performed merely to justify the existence of the security function.

QUESTION 142 Which of the following BEST indicates a successful risk management practice? A. Overall risk is quantified B. Inherent risk is eliminated C. Residual risk is minimized D. Control risk is tied to business units 100-105 vce Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A successful risk management practice minimizes the residual risk to the organization. Choice A is incorrect because the fact that overall risk has been quantified does not necessarily indicate the existence of a successful risk management practice. Choice B is incorrect since it is virtually impossible to eliminate inherent risk. Choice D is incorrect because, although the tying of control risks to business may improve accountability, this is not as desirable as minimizing residual risk.

QUESTION 143 Which of the following would generally have the GREATEST negative impact on an organization? A. Theft of computer software B. Interruption of utility services C. Loss of customer confidence D. Internal fraud resulting in monetary loss Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Although the theft of software, interruption of utility services and internal frauds are all significant, the loss of customer confidence is the most damaging and could cause the business to fail.

QUESTION 144 A successful information security management program should use which of the following to determine the amount of resources devoted to mitigating exposures? A. Risk analysis results B. Audit report findings C. Penetration test results D. Amount of IT budget available 100-105 exam Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risk analysis results are the most useful and complete source of information for determining the amount of resources to devote to mitigating exposures. Audit report findings may not address all risks and do not address annual loss frequency. Penetration test results provide only a limited view of exposures, while the IT budget is not tied to the exposures faced by the organization.

QUESTION 145 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks? A. Static IP addressing B. Internal address translation C. Prospective employee background checks D. Employee awareness certification program Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Because past performance is a strong predictor of future performance, background checks of prospective employees best prevents attacks from originating within an organization. Static IP addressing does little to prevent an internal attack. Internal address translation using non-routable addresses is useful against external attacks but not against internal attacks. Employees who certify that they have read security policies are desirable, but this does not guarantee that the employees behave honestly.

QUESTION 146 For risk management purposes, the value of an asset should be based on: A. original cost. B. net cash flow. C. net present value. D. replacement cost. 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The value of a physical asset should be based on its replacement cost since this is the amount that would be needed to replace the asset if it were to become damaged or destroyed. Original cost may be significantly different than the current cost of replacing the asset. Net cash flow and net present value do not accurately reflect the true value of the asset.

QUESTION 147 In a business impact analysis, the value of an information system should be based on the overall cost: A. of recovery. B. to recreate. C. if unavailable. D. of emergency operations. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The value of an information system should be based on the cost incurred if the system were to become unavailable. The cost to design or recreate the system is not as relevant since a business impact analysis measures the impact that would occur if an information system were to become unavailable. Similarly, the cost of emergency operations is not as relevant.

QUESTION 148 Acceptable risk is achieved when: A. residual risk is minimized. B. transferred risk is minimized. C. control risk is minimized. D. inherent risk is minimized. 100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Residual risk is the risk that remains after putting into place an effective risk management program; therefore, acceptable risk is achieved when this amount is minimized. Transferred risk is risk that has been assumed by a third party and may not necessarily be equal to the minimal form of residual risk. Control risk is the risk that controls may not prevent/detect an incident with a measure of control effectiveness. Inherent risk cannot be minimized.

QUESTION 149 The value of information assets is BEST determined by: A. individual business managers. B. business systems analysts. C. information security management. D. industry averages benchmarking. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Individual business managers are in the best position to determine the value of information assets since they are most knowledgeable of the assets' impact on the business. Business systems developers and information security managers are not as knowledgeable regarding the impact on the business. Peer companies' industry averages do not necessarily provide detailed enough information nor are they as relevant to the unique aspects of the business.

QUESTION 150 During which phase of development is it MOST appropriate to begin assessing the risk of a new application system? A. Feasibility B. Design C. Development D. Testing 100-105 vce Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risk should be addressed as early in the development of a new application system as possible. In some cases, identified risks could be mitigated through design changes. If needed changes are not identified until design has already commenced, such changes become more expensive. For this reason, beginning risk assessment during the design, development or testing phases is not the best solution.

QUESTION 151 The MOST effective way to incorporate risk management practices into existing production systems is through: A. policy development. B. change management. C. awareness training. D. regular monitoring. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Change is a process in which new risks can be introduced into business processes and systems. For this reason, risk management should be an integral component of the change management process. Policy development, awareness training and regular monitoring, although all worthwhile activities, are not as effective as change management.

QUESTION 152 Which of the following would be MOST useful in developing a series of recovery time objectives (RTOs)? A. Gap analysis B. Regression analysis C. Risk analysis D. Business impact analysis 100-105 exam Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are a primary deliverable of a business impact analysis. RTOs relate to the financial impact of a system not being available. A gap analysis is useful in addressing the differences between the current state and an ideal future state. Regression analysis is used to test changes to program modules. Risk analysis is a component of the business impact analysis.

QUESTION 153 The recovery time objective (RTO) is reached at which of the following milestones? A. Disaster declaration B. Recovery of the backups C. Restoration of the system D. Return to business as usual processing Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the amount of time required to restore a system; disaster declaration occurs at the beginning of this period. Recovery of the backups occurs shortly after the beginning of this period. Return to business as usual processing occurs significantly later than the RTO. RTO is an "objective," and full restoration may or may not coincide with the RTO. RTO can be the minimum acceptable operational level, far short of normal operations.

QUESTION 154 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management decision making? A. Control risk B. Inherent risk C. Risk exposure D. Residual risk 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Residual risk provides management with sufficient information to decide to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept. Control risk is the risk that a control may not succeed in preventing an undesirable event. Risk exposure is the likelihood of an undesirable event occurring. Inherent risk is an important factor to be considered during the risk assessment.

QUESTION 155 The decision on whether new risks should fall under periodic or event-driven reporting should be based on which of the following? A. Mitigating controls B. Visibility of impact C. Likelihood of occurrence D. Incident frequency Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Visibility of impact is the best measure since it manages risks to an organization in the timeliest manner. Likelihood of occurrence and incident frequency are not as relevant. Mitigating controls is not a determining factor on incident reporting.

QUESTION 156 Risk acceptance is a component of which of the following? A. Assessment B. Mitigation C. Evaluation D. Monitoring 100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risk acceptance is one of the alternatives to be considered in the risk mitigation process. Assessment and evaluation are components of the risk analysis process. Risk acceptance is not a component of monitoring.

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