As I read more, my analysis appears to be consistent with chapters 11-14 of Rubin’s Essays on Marx. Though, I — still — have not fully digested all of this — despite having read and re-read these chapters... I began today with ch. 14 on “Abstract Labor”, which refers back to ch. 11 on “Equality of Commodities an Equality of Labor”. Next comes ch. 12 on “Content and Form of Labor”; followed by ch. 13 on “Social Labor”. It seems that Rubin’s interpretation of Marx is that “socially equalized labor” is an appropriate way to characterize pre-capitalist social forms — but, as Rubin points out, “abstract labor” does not dominate until capitalism. Socialized labor occurs not only pre-capitalism but also under communist relations.
Maybe it is beyond my pay scale to give an accurate analysis of the distinction Rubin makes — and attributes to Marx — between socially equalized and abstract labor. Rubin, though, seems to me to be correct and in line with Marx in his analysis. Another slow, careful read of ch. 11-14 would probably be helpful in sorting this out. But “at this point”, I don’t see the distinction between “abstract labor” and “socially equalized labor” other than the fact that abstract labor rather than socially equalized labor is (overwhelmingly) used to describe the substance of value in capitalist societies. However, and again this may be above my pay grade but, for me, both seem to reflect an amount of socially necessary labor time that lurks behind exchanges in all social forms, but is not dominate/ fully developed until capitalism and neither guides production nor is necessarily a focus of accumulation in pre-capitalist societies.. If this is the case, the difference seems merely semantic to me..
I’m amazed how perfect the citation (in Chap. 1; section 4 of Capital I): When Marx states that “..value appears IN PRACTICE”, he referring to the dominance of value as not only for “occasional” exchanges in pre-capitalist social forms but (in practice) the regulation of production as well as the impetus for accumulation in capitalism. I do not feel — and also don’t feel that Marx stated — that exchange is “always” regulated by socially necessary labor time. However, I feel there are instances where “socially equalized labor” — as the substance of value — was the center of gravity as measured by stones, “bars in the mind”, cattle, etc. Consequently, there was “value” and the “value form” before the emergence of capitalism. Moreover, I assert that, opposed to capitalist societies, the value basis of exchange was weakened by exchanges based largely and more often on supply and demand as well as concrete labor/ craftsmanship, etc.
Overall, I am thus asserting that there is a difference between “value” — which is present in (almost) all social forms and described by Marx’s “Law of Value”; and the fully developed form of value — which is synonymous with capitalism and described by value form theory. (And perhaps for a later discussion: Is there a distinction between commodities — existing in pre-capitalist societies — and the universal commodity form — exclusive to capitalism?.)