John 8:44
“Jews are evil”
Long sighing
John 8:44 —
“Ye (the Pharisees) are of [your] father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.”
For those who are unfamiliar with this chapter of John, this is the chapter containing the famous line: “He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.” — also known as “Jesus and the Woman Taken in Adultery”
In this chapter, the Pharisees are denying that Jesus is the messiah, and bring him a woman who they claim is an adulteress, telling him that Abrahamic law dictates he stone her to death for her sin.
Obviously he refuses, and utters the famous line.
The Pharisees then leave, and refuse to stone her as well. When they continue to deny that Jesus is the messiah, saying that they are the sons of Abraham and have never known bondage, therefore why does he claim they need him to be free? He then responds with the verse anon mentioned.
I have several problems with this ask, but I will try to address them as succinctly as possible:
1) The Pharisees are not ALL Jews. Using the actions of ONE sect (from literally 2 THOUSAND YEARS AGO) to condemn ALL of us in modern day is disingenuous and completely absurd.
Could you imagine if I said “I condemn chipotle’s actions as a company because they are raising prices and lowering portions, and not acknowledging that their food is making people sick, too” and over a thousand years from now, someone used that as proof that ALL Mexican food is evil, without even directly quoting me?? Do you see how ridiculous that is?
2) JESUS WAS LITERALLY JEWISH?????? THEY LITERALLY CALL HIM “RABBI” OVER A DOZEN TIMES
Do you believe Jesus is also evil, then??
3) This chapter is pretty universally agreed to be pseudepigraphical (falsely attributed, ahistorical) in nature. IE — it was added hundreds of years later by monks (this is a fairly common occurrence).
“The pericope does not occur in the Greek Gospel manuscripts from Egypt. The Pericope Adulterae is not in 𝔓66 or in 𝔓75, both of which have been assigned to the late 100s or early 200s, nor in two important manuscripts produced in the early or mid 300s, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus. The first surviving Greek manuscript to contain the pericope is the Latin-Greek diglot Codex Bezae, produced in the 400s or 500s (but displaying a form of text which has affinities with "Western" readings used in the 100s and 200s). Codex Bezae is also the earliest surviving Latin manuscript to contain it. Out of 23 Old Latin manuscripts of John 7–8, seventeen contain at least part of the pericope, and represent at least three transmission-streams in which it was included.”
[Wikipedia]
[ Kaczorowski, Scott J. “The Pericope of the Woman Caught in Adultery: An Inspired Text Inserted into an Inspired Text?” Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society 61, no. 2 (June 1, 2018): 321–37. ]
4) Literally why would you send this to someone? Just to be cruel??
Maybe don’t send easily disproven statements about history to the history student
