I've been thinking, and it has to do with third-world countries in relation to first-world countries. Why is it, that we refer to under-developed/developing countries/nations as third-world? And why do we refer to developed countries as first-world? In context, the naming stems from an exploitation system in which the first-world nation takes goods/services/raw materials from the third-world, in exchange for little or nothing at all. Put into context, the first-world countries would be nothing without the third-world countries being there for them to exploit. The meaning of the naming is clearly for purposes of perpetuating superiority complexes; of which complexes: race/ethnicity/political/economical/or a mixture of some or all, I'm not quite sure. It seems to me that the naming obviously doesn't help the developing nation, but I don't know if it adds any more hindrance (likely it does, I'm just keenly unaware); likewise, I don't see the naming hindering the developed nation, but does it add in someway to the perceived superiority of said nation? I can't imagine anyone or any state/country/institution that is upholding and perpetuating a superiority over something would have a naming system that does nothing to further perpetuate the superiority. I'm implying here that the name, the title "first-world", helps to perpetuate superiority more than the actual exploitation of the developing nation, from which the developed nation gained its power. I would like to discuss this further, perhaps when my brain has been rested.