Intermission
As I read my entries after a long time, I want to say that my tone has changed enormously: my present opinions are less naïve! But my passion for these subjects has multiplied.
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Intermission
As I read my entries after a long time, I want to say that my tone has changed enormously: my present opinions are less naïve! But my passion for these subjects has multiplied.
Geometry Conundrums
I recently enjoyed this exercise:
Is \(H^1\left(\mathbb C^*,\mathbb Z\right)=\mathbb Z\)? (Čech Cohomology)
Hints:
If \(X\) is a contractible topological space, then \(H^i\left(X,\mathbb Z\right)=0\) for all \(i\in\left\{1,2,\dots\right\}\).
Leray’s Theorem
Here is another fun one:
Show that the Picard group \(\text{Pic}(\Delta)=H^1(\Delta,\mathcal O_\Delta^*)\) of holomorphic line bundles on the unit disk \(\Delta\) is trivial.
Hint:
Behnke, Stein, and Cartan showed that if \(X\) is a connected, non-compact Riemann surface, then \(H^1(X,\mathcal O_X)=H^2(X,\mathcal O_X)=0\).
Why Math Is like Medical School
If a colleague casually tells me: "let's compute the Lebesgue measure of...", this is what he or she assumes that I know:
The Lebesgue measure is the completion of the unique Borel measure generated by the increasing, right-continuous function \(F:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R\) defined by \(x\mapsto x\).
A function \(F:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R\) is increasing if for every \(x,y\in\mathbb R\) with \(x\leq y\), it is the case that \(F(x)\leq F(y)\).
A function \(F:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R\) is right-continuous at \(x_0\in\mathbb R\) if for every \(\varepsilon>0\), there is a \(\delta>0\) such that for every \(x\in(x_0,x_0+\delta)\), it is the case that \(|F(x)-F(x_0)|<\varepsilon\).
A function is right-continuous if it is right-continuous at every point of its domain.
A Borel measure is a measure defined on the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by the open sets of \(\mathbb R\) (with its standard topology).
A \(\sigma\)-algebra on some set \(X\) is a subset of \(\wp(X)\) (the power set of \(X\)) which is closed under countable unions and complements.
A measure is a function defined on a \(\sigma\)-algebra that takes non-negative, real values; that maps \(\varnothing\) (the empty set) to zero; and that is countably additive.
The power set of a set is the collection of all subsets of the set.
A measure is complete if the \(\sigma\)-algebra on which it is defined is complete.
A \(\sigma\)-algebra is complete if it contains all subsets of its null sets.
A null set is a measurable set with measure zero.
A measurable set is an element of a \(\sigma\)-algebra.
The measure of a measurable set is its value under a given measure.
An open set is an element of a topology.
A topology is a collection of subsets of some set \(X\) which contains \(\varnothing\) and \(X\) and is closed under arbitrary unions and finite intersections.
etc.
I did not define the italicized phrases to keep my sanity (and the entry readable). Allow me to explain:
A function \(\mu:\mathcal M\to[0,\infty]\) defined on a \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal M\) is countably additive if for every (countable) collection \(\{E_k\}_{k=1}^\infty\) of pairwise disjoint measurable sets, it is the case that\[\mu\left(\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty E_k\right)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu\left(E_k\right).\]
To top it off, these are definitions from a branch of math called measure theory, which is a fairly straightforward and intuitive one. There are branches that are much, much worse, like complex geometry, which is riddled with holomorphic and meromorphic functions, De Rham cohomology groups, submanifolds and subvarieties, sheaves, stalks, line bundles, divisors, germs, contravariant tensors, Jacobians, tangent spaces, and so on.
Fun Characterization of Hausdorff Spaces
Theorem. A topological space \(X\) is Hausdorff if and only if \(\Delta=\left\{x\times x:x\in X\right\}\) is closed in \(X\times X\).
Proof. Suppose that \(X\) is Hausdorff, and let \(u\times v\in X\times X-\Delta\). Then there exist respective, disjoint neighborhoods \(U\) and \(V\) of \(u\) and \(v\). Suppose that \(U\times V\subsetneq X\times X-\Delta\). Then there exists \(\hat u\times \hat v\in U\times V\) such that \(\hat u=\hat v\), which is a contradiction. Therefore, \(U\times V\subset X\times X-\Delta\), which implies that \(\Delta\) is closed.
Conversely, suppose that \(\Delta\) is closed, and let \(u\times v\in X\times X-\Delta\). Then there exist respective neighborhoods \(U\) and \(V\) of \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(U\times V\subset X\times X-\Delta\). Suppose that \(U\cap V\neq\varnothing\), and let \(x\in U\cap V\). Then \(x\times x\in U\times V\), which is a contradiction. Therefore, \(U\) and \(V\) are disjoint, which implies that \(X\) is Hausdorff. \(\blacksquare\)
On Getting a Ph.D. in Math, Pt. 1
Here are a few things that I have so far noticed about getting a Ph.D. in math.
Perfect knowledge alone will get you absolutely nowhere. Creativity is beyond crucial. You could memorize your books photographically and still bomb the exams easily.
Compared to other disciplines, mathematics is like a black hole. The amount of physical work submitted is relatively small, but its contents are ridiculously, monstrously dense. A student may spend two or more weeks vehemently working on an assignment and end up submitting a single page of writing (oozing visible energy, lol). However, the reading and scratchwork, the behind-the-scenes, is a serial sleep and tree killer.
Due to the above paragraph, the difficulty of the degree is inversely proportional to the brilliance of the student. I am enrolled in three classes and am barely staying alive. However, I am willing to bet money that a superb student from an Ivy League school can breeze through six of these lol’ing throughout.
In assignments, writing proofs depends tremendously on what has been covered (not on what you know) and on the worth of the proof. A proof containing ideas beyond what has been covered may get you in trouble, and an inherently long proof worth little can be substantially shortened by omitting "obvious" details (depending on what you think your professors think you know, which evolves as you prove yourself to them throughout the semester).
The relationship between the adviser and the candidate is analogous to that of the Jedi Master and the Padawan. Classes are tiny, so relationships are tighter. Also, the interests of the adviser and the candidate usually match. By requirement, no one on the planet may know more than them about a small, specialized, novel mathematical result, so their bond is unique.
Effective Communication
Come to think of it, we usually express ourselves with little to no regard for our audience; we seldom think: "how should I tailor my expression to my audience?" and instead express whatever comes to mind unfiltered.
Mathematics at the graduate level has taught me better than anything else the ridiculous importance of considering my audience.
For example, consider the following claim:
A field homomorphism \(\psi:F\to K\) is either trivial or injective.
If I were to know only that my audience are mathematicians, then I would not prove it. In fact, I would not even mention it.
If I were to know only that my audience are graduate students, then I would quickly and nonchalantly prove it as follows:
Since \(\ker\psi\) is ideal, either \(\ker\psi=0\) or \(F\). \(\square\)
Finally, if I were to know only that my audience are undergraduate students, then I would pedantically prove it as follows and take questions afterward:
Let \(a,b\in F\) such that \(a\neq b\) and suppose that \(\psi\left(a\right)=\psi\left(b\right)\). Then
\[\begin{align}\psi\left(a\right)\psi\left(a\right)^{-1}=\psi\left(b\right)\psi\left(a\right)^{-1}&\implies\psi\left(a\right)\psi\left(a^{-1}\right)=\psi\left(b\right)\psi\left(a^{-1}\right)\newline&\implies\psi\left(aa^{-1}\right)=\psi\left(ba^{-1}\right)\newline&\implies\psi\left(1\right)=\psi\left(ba^{-1}\right)\newline&\implies1=ba^{-1}\newline&\implies a=b,\end{align}\]
which is a contradiction. Therefore, \(\psi\left(a\right)\neq\psi\left(b\right)\), which implies that \(\psi\) is injective. \(\square\)
Effective communication is concise relative to your audience, which reflects the understanding and sensibility of the communicator. On the other hand, ineffective communication has many consequences, of which I mention a few: it highlights your lack of understanding, it wastes time, it confuses more than it clarifies, and it might even patronize your audience.
Communication does not exist without an audience, so consider it well!
Galois Theory Bits #1
Let \(E\) be the splitting field of an irreducible polynomial in \(\mathbb Q\left[x\right]\) of prime degree \(p\) having exactly two non-real roots. Then \(\text{Gal}\left(E/\mathbb Q\right)\cong S_p\).
Smooth Manifold Theory
Here are some of my favorite results about smooth manifolds. Since their proofs are somewhat involved, I will only post their statements for the sake of the big picture. I extracted and refined these from a dense text.
Definitions
Definition: A subset of a topological space is precompact if its closure is compact.
Definition: A collection of subsets of a topological space is locally-finite if every point in the space has a neighborhood that intersects finitely-many of these subsets.
Definition: A topological space \(M\) is said to be locally-compact if every point has a neighborhood contained in a compact subset of \(M\).
Definition: A topological space is paracompact if all of its open covers have locally-finite open refinements.
Definition: If \(M\) is a smooth manifold, then an open cover \(\left\{W_i\right\}\) of \(M\) is regular if
\(\left\{W_i\right\}\) is countable and locally-finite,
there is a smooth coordinate map \(\varphi_i:W_i\to\mathbb R^n\) whose image is \(B_3\left(0\right)\), and
\(\left\{U_i\right\}\) covers \(M\), where \(U_i=\varphi_i^{-1}\left(B_1\left(0\right)\right)\).
Definition: If \(M\) is a topological space, and \(\mathcal X=\left\{X_\alpha\right\}_{\alpha\in A}\) is an open cover of \(M\), then a partition of unity subordinate to \(\mathcal X\) is a collection of continuous functions \(\left\{\psi_\alpha:M\to\mathbb R\right\}_{\alpha\in A}\) such that
\(0\leqslant\psi_\alpha\left(x\right)\leqslant1\),
\(\text{supp }\psi_\alpha\subseteq X_\alpha\),
\(\left\{\text{supp }\psi_\alpha\right\}_{\alpha\in A}\) is locally-finite, and
\(\sum_{\alpha\in A}\psi_\alpha\left(x\right)=1\).
Claims
Claim: Every topological manifold has a countable basis of precompact coordinate balls (extends analogously to smooth manifolds).
Claim: Every topological manifold is locally compact.
Claim: Every topological manifold has a countable, locally-finite cover by precompact open sets.
Claim: If \(M\) is a smooth manifold, then every open cover of \(M\) has a regular refinement. In particular, \(M\) is paracompact.
Claim: If \(M\) is a smooth manifold, and \(\mathcal X=\left\{X_\alpha\right\}_{\alpha\in A}\) is an open cover of \(M\), then there is a smooth partition of unity subordinate to \(\mathcal X\).
Tangent Spaces
Motivation
I am finding it hard to both study math at this level and feel like I am retaining anything. The material is brutally extensive, so I will concisely re-derive the fundamentals of tangent spaces to the best of my abilities.
Perhaps it is my imagination, but it would not hurt to try it anyway.
Goal
We know that a smooth function from \(\mathbb R^n\) to \(\mathbb R^m\) can be approximated by its total derivative. We now want to approximate smooth maps between smooth manifolds.
To this end, let us consider two concepts:
First Concept
Usually, \(\mathbb R^n\) is thought of as a vector space with the geometric picture that its vectors are centered at the origin. We take this one step further and define \(\mathbb R^n_a:=\left\{a\right\}\times\mathbb R^n\), where \(a\) is an element of \(\mathbb R^n\), with the geometric picture that its vectors are centered at \(a\). Clearly, \(\mathbb R^n_a\) and \(\mathbb R^n\) are isomorphic. In other words, all we did was translate \(\mathbb R\). Since elements of \(\mathbb R^n_a\) have the form \(\left(a,v\right)\), where \(a\) and \(v\) are elements of \(\mathbb R^n\), we will usually denote them as \(v_a\) or \(\left.v\right|_a\), depending on the context.
Second Concept
A linear map \(X:C^\infty\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\to\mathbb R\) is called a derivation of \(C^\infty\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\) at \(a\in\mathbb R^n\) if
\[X\left(fg\right)=f\left(a\right)Xg+g\left(a\right)Xf.\]
Let \(T_a\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\) be the set of all derivations of \(C^\infty\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\) at \(a\in\mathbb R^n\). Then \(T_a\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\) is clearly a vector space.
Nice Claim
We now make the nice claim that \(\mathbb R^n_a\) and \(T_a\left(\mathbb R^n\right)\) are isomorphic with \(v_a\mapsto\left.D_v\right|_a\), where \(\left.D_v\right|_a\) is the usual directional derivative from calculus.
I will not prove it since this is a conceptual blog entry.
Pushforwards
Let \(F:M\to N\) be a smooth map between smooth manifolds, and define its pushforward \(F_*:T_pM\to T_{F\left(p\right)}N\) at a point \(p\in M\) such that
\[\left(F_*X\right)\left(f\right)=X\left(f\circ F\right),\]
where \(X\in T_pM\) and \(f\in C^\infty\left(N\right)\).
To proceed, it must be noted that if \(f\) and \(g\) agree on some neighborhood \(U\) of \(p\), then \(Xf=Xg\). Moreover, \(T_pU\) and \(T_pM\) are isomorphic. In particular, \(f\) and \(g\) need not be defined on all of \(M\).
Computations in Coordinates
Concrete Case
Consider the case where \(M=\mathbb R^m\) and \(N=\mathbb R^n\). Then
\[\left(F_*\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_p\right)f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial y^j}\left(F\left(p\right)\right)\frac{\partial F^j}{\partial x^i}\left(p\right)=\left(\left.\frac{\partial F^j}{\partial x^i}\left(p\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial y^j}\right|_{F\left(p\right)}\right)f.\]
Recall that \(x^i\) and \(y^i\) are the standard coordinates of \(\mathbb R^m\) and \(\mathbb R^n\), respectively, and that
\[\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^1}\right|_p,\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^2}\right|_p,\cdots,\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^m}\right|_p\]
forms a basis for \(T_p\left(\mathbb R^m\right)\). Also, recall that we tend to abuse notation tremendously to simplify expressions. For example, given a chart \(\left(U,\varphi\right)\), we identify \(U\) with \(\varphi\left(U\right)=\tilde U\) and think of \(\varphi=\left(x^i\right)\) as the identity map (always keeping in mind that these are huge sins).
Abstract Case
Now, consider the case where \(M\) and \(N\) are arbitrary smooth manifolds. Then given two charts \(\left(U,\varphi\right)\) of \(M\) and \(\left(V,\psi\right)\) of \(N\) such that \(F\left(U\right)\subseteq V\), it follows that \(\hat F=\psi\circ F\circ\varphi^{-1}\) is the coordinate representation of \(F\) and
\[\begin{align*}\left(F_*\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_p\right)&=F_*\left(\left(\varphi^{-1}\right)_*\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_{\hat p}\right)\newline&=\left(\psi^{-1}\right)_*\left(\hat F_*\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_{\hat p}\right)\newline&=\left(\psi^{-1}\right)_*\left(\left.\frac{\partial\hat F^j}{\partial x^i}\left(\hat p\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial y^j}\right|_{\hat F\left(\hat p\right)}\right)\newline&=\left.\frac{\partial\hat F^j}{\partial x^i}\left(\hat p\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial y^j}\right|_{F\left(p\right)},\end{align*}\]
where \(\hat p=\varphi\left(p\right)\) is the coordinate representation of \(p\), as usual (remember the sin, no pun intended). All of these look like complicated computations, but they are pretty straightforward.
Change of Coordinates
This will be the last section of this blog entry. I am currently discussing a typo in my text with other mathematicians. I will complete this section as soon as that issue is resolved. Also, Tumblr does not like very long posts...
Let \(\left(U,\varphi\right)=\left(U,\left(x^i\right)\right)\) and \(\left(V,\psi\right)=\left(V,\left(\tilde x^i\right)\right)\) be smooth charts of a smooth manifold, let \(p\in U\cap V\), and denote \(\psi\circ\varphi^{-1}=\left(\hat x^1,\dots,\hat x^n\right)\). Then
\[\left(\psi\circ\varphi^{-1}\right)_*\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_{\varphi\left(p\right)}=\left.\frac{\partial\hat x^j}{\partial x^i}\left(\varphi\left(p\right)\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial\hat x^j}\right|_{\psi\left(p\right)}.\]
Therefore,
\[\begin{align*}\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_p&=\left.\left(\varphi^{-1} \right )_*\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_{\varphi\left(p \right )}\newline &=\left(\psi^{-1} \right )_*\left(\left.\left(\psi\circ\varphi^{-1} \right )_*\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|_{\varphi\left(p \right )} \right )\newline &=\left(\psi^{-1} \right )_*\left(\left.\frac{\partial\hat x^j}{\partial x^i}\left(\varphi\left(p \right ) \right )\frac{\partial}{\partial\hat x^j}\right|_{\psi\left(p \right )} \right )\newline &=\left.\frac{\partial\hat x^j}{\partial x^i}\left(\hat p \right )\frac{\partial}{\partial\hat x^j}\right|_p.\end{align*}\]
This concludes tangent spaces, although I might talk a bit about curves later.
Fundamentals of the Cotangent Bundle
Apparently, derivatives of real-valued functions on a manifold are most naturally interpreted as tangent covectors. I am not yet sure how—this concept is still giving me a bit of a headache—but we will find out.
Let \(V\) be a finite-dimensional vector space over a field \(F\). Its dual space \(V^*\) is the set of all linear functionals \(\omega:V\to F\). It is the case that \(V\) and \(V^{**}\), its second dual space (analogously defined), are isomorphic with \(\xi:V\to V^{**}\) such that \(\xi\left(X\right)\left(\omega\right)=\omega\left(X\right)\) for \(X\in V\) and \(\omega\in V^*\). Let \(A:V\to W\) be a linear map between finite-dimensional vector spaces and define its adjoint \(A^*:W^*\to V^*\) such that \(A^*\omega\left(X\right)=\omega\left(AX\right)\) for \(X\in V\) and \(\omega\in W^*\). Then
\[\begin{matrix}V&\xrightarrow{A}&W\newline\left.\right\downarrow{\xi_V}&&\left.\right\downarrow{\xi_W}\newline V^{**}&\xrightarrow{A^{**}}&W^{**}\end{matrix}\]
I claim that this diagram (excuse its crappiness) commutes, that is, \(A^{**}\xi_V=\xi_W\circ A\).
Let \(X\in V\), and let \(\omega\in W^{**}\). Then \(\xi_W\left(AX\right)\left(\omega\right)=\omega\left(AX\right)\). Moreover,
\[A^{**}\xi_V\left(X\right)\left(\omega\right)=\xi\left(X\right)\left(A^*\omega\right)=A^*\omega\left(X\right)=\omega\left(AX\right),\]
as required.
Hamming Metric and Error Correction
This blog entry was inspired by an interesting conversation that I had yesterday and real analysis from last semester.
For some \(n\in\mathbb N\), consider the set \(X=\mathbb Z_2^n\). That is, \(X\) is the set of all binary sequences of length \(n\). For example, let \(x\in X\). Then \(x=\left(x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n\right)\), where \(x_i\in\left\{0,1\right\}\). For a more concrete example, an element of \(X=\mathbb Z_2^{10}\) could look like this: \(\left(0,0,0,1,0,1,1,0,1,1\right)\).
Define a map \(d:X\times X\to\mathbb N^{\geqslant0}\) by \(d\left(x,y\right)=\left|i:x_i\neq y_i\right|\). Then \(d\) is a metric for \(X\), and thus \(\left(X,d\right)\) is a metric space. That is, \(X\) is a metrizable, Hausdorff topological space whose basis elements \(B_\varepsilon\left(x\right)\\), for some \(\varepsilon>0\) and \(x\in X\), are points who differ from \(x\) by at most \(\left\lceil\varepsilon-1\right\rceil\) coordinates.
Such a metric is called the Hamming metric.
Suppose that we have an alphabet \(\mathbb A\) of symbols (it could be the one that we know and love) that we want to store in a hard drive in the form of binary sequences like the ones above.
This could be implemented by an encoder/decoder pair
\[\begin{align}E&:\mathbb A\to X\newline\Delta&:X\to\mathbb A\end{align}\]
This would suffice in an ideal world. But since the real world is tough, there could be errors in the sequences produced by \(E\), say, a bit flip. For example, say that \(E\) produces a sequence \(x\in X\) such that its entries with indices in \(J=\left\{1,2,\dots,n\right\}\) are corrupted.
Define a function \(f:X\to X\), \(x\mapsto y\), such that
\[y_i=\begin{cases}x_i&\text{ if }x_i\not\in J\newline1-x_i&\text{ if }x_i\in J\end{cases}\]
Now we wish to find two maps \(E\) and \(\Delta\) such that \(\Delta\circ f\circ E=\text{id}_\mathbb A\), assuming the size of \(J\) is not “too big."
Given \(r=\left|J\right|\), how big should the alphabet \(\mathbb A\) be to correct such bit flips with certainty?
If \(E\) is injective and messages consist of the set \(E\left(\mathbb A\right)\) such that if \(x,y\in E\left(\mathbb A\right)\) with \(x\neq y\), then \(\overline B_r\left(x\right)\cap\overline B_r\left(y\right)=\varnothing\). We can let \(\Delta\left(y\right)=a\in\mathbb A\) with \(y\in\overline B_r\left(E\left(a\right)\right)\), which will correct all bit flips for which \(\left|J\right|\leqslant r\).
Now, given \(n,r\), as above, how many disjoint closed balls of radius \(r\) can we fit in \(X\)?
To be continued...
Can’t Sleep? Easy: Math!
I’m not saying math makes me sleepy, lol.
While studying topological \(n\)-manifolds (particularly the smooth ones) I wondered whether one can find examples of topological spaces that meet two of the three conventional properties of manifolds. That is, them being:
Hausdorff,
second-countable, and
locally Euclidean.
Here’s an example of a topological space that is second-countable and locally Euclidean but not Hausdorff:
Consider the set \(X\) of points \(\left(x,y\right)\in\mathbb R^2\) such that \(y=\pm1\) and define an equivalence relation \(\left(x,+1\right)\sim\left(x,-1\right)\) if and only if \(x\neq0\). Then the quotient \(Y=X/\sim\) is a topological space that is second-countable and locally Euclidean but not Hausdorff. Recall that the open sets of \(Y\) are those whose preimage under the canonical map \(\varphi:X\to Y\), where \(x\mapsto\left[x\right]\), is open in \(X\). Recall also that \(X\) is equipped with the subspace topology induced by the standard one on \(\mathbb R^2\). The idea to prove that it is not Hausdorff is to show that there exist no disjoint neighborhoods for the two origins.
Here’s an example of a topological space that is Hausdorff and locally Euclidean but not second-countable:
Let \(X\) be the disjoint union of \(\mathbb R\) over an uncountable index set \(I\). That is,
$$X=\coprod_{i\in I}\mathbb R=\left\{\left(x,i\right):x\in\mathbb R\text{ and }i\in I\right\}.$$
Open sets in \(X\) are those whose preimage under the canonical injection \(\varphi_i:\mathbb R\to X\), where \(\varphi_i\left(x\right)=\left(x,i\right)\) for all \(i\in I\), is open in \(\mathbb R\) equipped with the standard topology. In other words, \(U\) is open in \(X\) if \(\varphi_i^{-1}\left(U\right)\) is open in \(\mathbb R\). Then \(X\) is Hausdorff and locally Euclidean but not second countable. The idea to prove that it is not second-countable is to show that it is not Lindelöf, since Lindelöf is a necessary and sufficient condition for second-countability in metric spaces.
I still have not found an example of a topological space that is Hausdorff and second-countable but not locally Euclidean, but I will update this post with it once I find it.
Happy Valentine’s Day!
Algebra Final Afterthoughts
This was one of the questions of my algebra final. I liked it very much, so I'll redo it here (if I can remember everything correctly). Here's some preliminary work. They're not rigorous proofs, but rather sketches.
Let \(R\) be a Boolean ring with a unity \(1\).
Recall that all elements of a Boolean ring are idempotent.
Claim \(1\): If \(x\in R\), then \(x=-x\). Proof: \(x=x^2=\left(-x\right)^2=-x\). \(\square\)
Claim \(2\): \(R\) is commutative. Proof: Let \(x,y\in R\). Then \(x+y=\left(x+y\right)\left(x+y\right)=x^2+xy+yx+y^2=x+xy+yx+y\), which implies that \(xy=-yx\), which, by Claim \(1\), implies that \(xy=yx\). \(\square\)
Claim \(3\): If \(P\) is a prime ideal of \(R\), then \(R/P\) is an integral domain. Proof: Let \(x,y\in R\) and suppose that \(\left(x+P\right)\left(y+P\right)=xy+P=P\). Then \(xy\in P\). Since \(P\) is a prime ideal, either \(x\in P\) or \(y\in P\). Assume, without loss of generality, that \(x\in P\). Then \(x+P=P\). \(\square\)
Claim \(4\): If \(R\) is an integral domain, then \(R\cong\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\). Proof: Let \(x\in R\). Then \(x^2=x\), which implies that \(x\left(x-1\right)=0\). Since \(R\) is an integral domain, either \(x=0\) or \(x=1\). \(\square\)
Claim \(5\): If \(I\) is an ideal of \(R\) and \(R/I\) is a field, then \(I\) is maximal. Proof: I don't know how to prove this yet, but I believe Zorn's lemma might come in handy. I.e., considering the set of all ideals of \(R\) containing \(I\), simply ordered by set inclusion.
Now here's the question that was in my exam. It was pretty much a knowledge bomb about a huge chunk of ring theory, albeit basic stuff.
Claim: If \(P\) is a prime ideal of \(R\), then \(P\) is maximal. Proof: Since \(R\) has a unity and is commutative (from Claim \(2\)), it follows from Claim \(3\) that \(R/P\) is an integral domain. Since \(R/P\) is also a Boolean ring, it follows from Claim \(4\) that \(R/P\) is isomorphic to \(\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\), which is a field. Therefore, by Claim \(5\), \(P\) is maximal. \(\square\)
Algebra was the most brutal class I took this semester, and I’ll take the second part next semester. In hindsight, everything we covered wasn’t that bad, and I keep hearing that Galois theory is monstrous. I hope I have what it takes!
Algebra, My Nemesis
Algebra is the toughest math course I’ve taken in my entire life.
Group actions, quotient (or factor) groups, and the homomorphism/isomorphism theorems (or whatever you want to call them) are still fairly confusing to me, and I’ve been studying them for a few weeks already (perhaps due to how... abstract [ba dum tss]... they are). So I’ll briefly go over them here one more time.
Claim: Let \(G\) and \(H\) be groups, and let \(\theta:G\to H\) be a homomorphism. Then
\(\ker\theta\triangleleft G\),
\(\theta\left(G\right)<H\), and
\(G/\ker\theta\cong\theta\left(G\right)\).
Consider how this claim would change if \(\theta\) were an epimorphism instead.
Proof.
Let \(g\in G\), and let \(h\in\ker\theta\). Then
$$\theta\left(ghg^{-1}\right)=\theta\left(g\right)\theta\left(h\right)\theta\left(g^{-1}\right)=\theta\left(g\right)e_H\theta\left(g\right)^{-1}=e_H.$$
Therefore, \(ghg^{-1}\in\ker\theta\), which implies \(\ker\theta\triangleleft G\).
Since \(\theta\left(e_G\right)=e_H\), we have \(e_H\in\theta\left(G\right)\), so it is nonempty. Let \(g,h\in G\). Then \(\theta\left(g\right),\theta\left(h\right)\in\theta\left(G\right)\), and \(\theta\left(g\right)\theta\left(h\right)=\theta\left(gh\right)\in\theta\left(G\right)\), so \(\theta\left(G\right)\) is closed under the operation. Moreover, we have \(\theta\left(g^{-1}\right)=\theta\left(g\right)^{-1}\in\theta\left(G\right)\), so \(\theta\left(G\right)\) is closed under inverses, implying \(\theta\left(G\right)<H\).
A proof of the last result can be found here, though I think one could prove it via a natural homomorphism. Never mind: I forgot that an epimorphism \(\theta\) from \(G\) to \(H\) induces an isomorphism \(\phi\) from \(G/K\) to \(H\), where \(K\triangleleft G\), \(\theta=\eta\circ\phi\), and \(\eta\) is the natural homomorphism from \(G\) to \(G/K\). \(\blacksquare\)
What is a good use of this?
Cantor Set & C*-Algebras
While reading one of my professors' notes about the Cantor set, I ran into my first \(C^*\)-algebra in the context of the material that we have thus far covered. I must document it here because I am a nerd.
Let \(X\) be a compact metric space, and define
$$C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right):=\left\{f:X\to\mathbb C:f\text{ is continuous}\right\}.$$
Then, with the operations of pointwise addition and pointwise multiplication, \(C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right)\) is a ring; with the supremum norm \(\left\|f\right\|_{\infty}:=\sup_{x\in X}\left|f\left(x\right)\right|\), \(C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right)\) is a Banach algebra; and with the \(*\)-operation of conjugacy \(f^*\left(x\right):=\overline{f\left(x\right)}\), \(C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right)\) is a \(C^*\)-algebra.
The reason why he mentions it in his note is because we are studying the Cantor set. Particularly, by the Alexandroff-Hausdorff theorem, there exists a continuous surjection \(g:K\to X\), where \(K\) is the Cantor set. In addition, \(g\) induces a \(*\)-homomorphism by \(g^*:C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right)\to C_{\mathbb C}\left(K\right)\) and \(g^*\left(f\right):=f\circ g\). Thus \(g^*\) is an isometric imbedding of \(C_{\mathbb C}\left(X\right)\) onto a \(C^*\)-subalgebra of \(C_{\mathbb C}\left(K\right)\).
I miss life as an undergrad.
I really miss life as an undergrad.
It gave me the illusion that I knew something, that I was intelligent, that I was competent, that I was making something worthy out of myself. Allow me to better explain:
My highest undergrad achievement (aside from helping to publish this) was taking five senior-level courses in computer science and mathematics in one semester and effortlessly acing the crap out of them. The courses covered things like neuro-fuzzy systems (genetic algorithms, artificial neural networks, etc.), numerical analysis (Runge–Kutta–Fehlberg method, etc.), databases (1NF, 2NF, 3NF, Boyce–Codd normal form, etc.), and data mining (association rule learning, etc.).
This led me to believe that I was talented, that I was ready to take over the industrial world upon graduating... and the honors that the school bestowed upon me then did nothing at all but further adorn this mirage.
Unsurprisingly, life as a graduate student has humbled me down to the core of the deepest and darkest figurative place in the entire universe. I am taking only three courses and can barely breathe! My goodness! I have never in my life done so much reading, so much writing, so much thinking, and thinking, and thinking, and thinking my eyeball sockets out or until I pass out (or both)! I have literally gone through so many reams of paper that I feel like I am cold-bloodedly murdering the innocent trees! I have spent countless nights without sleep trying to understand just one measly concept! Totally, every day is a flabbergasting reminder that the world is not a simple, easy place, that whoever believes that they have the world figured out is outright delusional, that those who have managed to bring us, heck, ephemeral glimpses of the truth deserve to be respected and lauded.
Although I am doing well with my courses, I am ridiculously humbled by the experience so far and would like to express my greatest admiration, gratitude, and respect to those who have managed to make it through this journey and moved on to meaningfully contribute to our civilization, implicitly leaving their mark in the history of humanity.
Cheers!
An Old Promise
I did not forget!
A long time ago, I assumed on a whim that the multiplicative group of integers mod \(p\) is isomorphic to the additive group of integers mod \(p-1\), where \(p\) is prime, to prove Fermat's little theorem and promised to later prove that this is indeed the case.
Well, it turns out that this is indeed the case!
At the time, I had neither the tools nor the mathematical maturity to undertake this task, which was evident by my inability to even know where to begin, but I have now gathered sufficient knowledge to finish what I started; I am true to my promises, even if it takes me a while to fulfill them!
The First Lemma
Let us begin by proving that every cyclic group of order \(n\) is isomorphic to the additive group of integers mod \(n\), henceforth denoted by \(\mathbb Z_n\). I want to later on show that the multiplicative group of integers mod \(p\), where \(p\) is prime, is cyclic and thus prove our "big" claim. Let us denote this latter group by \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\).
Lemma 1. Every cyclic group of order \(n\) is isomorphic \(\mathbb Z_n\).
Proof. Let \(G\) be a cyclic group of order \(n\). Then there exists \(g\in G\) such that \(g^n=e\), where \(e\) is the identity, and \(\langle g\rangle=G\), that is, \(g\) generates \(G\). Observe that for any integer \(m\), by the division algorithm, \(m=qn+r\), where \(q\) and \(r\) are integers and \(0\leqslant r<n\). Therefore,
$$g^m=g^{qn+r}=g^{qn}g^r=eq^r=q^r,$$
which implies that \(g^m\) is congruent to \(g^r\) mod \(n\), if I may. We use this fact to define
$$\begin{align}\varphi:G\to\mathbb Z_n\newline g^{\left[k\right]}\mapsto \left[k\right]\end{align}$$
for any integer \(k\), where, naturally, \(\left[k\right]\) is its representative mod \(n\). Clearly, \(\varphi\) is well-defined, surjective, and injective. It is therefore a bijective map from \(G\) to \(\mathbb Z\). Moreover,
$$\varphi\left(g^{\left[a\right]}g^{\left[b\right]}\right)=\varphi\left(g^{\left[a\right]+\left[b\right]}\right)=\left[a\right]+\left[b\right]= \varphi\left(g^{\left[a\right]}\right)+\varphi\left(g^{\left[b\right]}\right).$$
Hence, \(\varphi\) is a bijective homomorphism and thus an isomorphism. \(\blacksquare\)
The Second Lemma
I will now show that if an abelian group has two elements of order \(m\) and \(n\), then it has an element of order \(\text{lcm}\left(m,n\right)\). I will later use this fact to show that \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\), where \(p\) is prime, has a generator (and is thus cyclic: food for our first lemma!). It goes without saying that \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\) is abelian.
Lemma 2. If an abelian group \(G\) has two elements of order \(m\) and \(n\), then \(G\) has an element of order \(\text{lcm}\left(m,n\right)\).
Proof. Let
$$m=p_1^{\alpha_1}\cdot p_2^{\alpha_2}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\alpha_k}\qquad\text{and}\qquad n=p_1^{\beta_1}\cdot p_2^{\beta_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\beta_k}$$
be the factorization into powers of primes of \(m\) and \(n\), and let \(\gamma_i=\max\left\{\alpha_i,\beta_i\right\}\) for every \(i\in\left\{1,2,\dots,k\right\}\). Then
$$\text{lcm}\left(m,n\right)=p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}.$$
Let \(\alpha_i’\) and \(\beta_i’\) be such that \(\alpha_i+\alpha_i’=\gamma_i\) and \(\beta_i+\beta_i’=\gamma_i\). Notice that either \(\alpha_i’\) or \(\beta_i’\) could be zero if \(\alpha_i\) or \(\beta_i\) is already \(\gamma_i\). Moreover, let \(g,h\in G\) such that \(g^m=e\) and \(h^n=e\), and consider:
$$\left(gh\right)^{\text{lcm}\left(m,n\right)}=\left(gh\right)^{p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}}=g^{p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}}h^{p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}}.$$
This last equality follows from the fact that \(G\) is abelian. Carrying on:
$$\begin{align}g^{p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}}h^{p_1^{\gamma_1}\cdot p_2^{\gamma_2}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\gamma_k}}&=g^{p_1^{\alpha_1+\alpha_1'}\cdot p_2^{\alpha_2+\alpha_2'}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\alpha_k+\alpha_k'}}g^{p_1^{\beta_1+\beta_1'}\cdot p_2^{\beta_2+\beta_2'}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\beta_k+\beta_k'}}\newline&=g^{p_1^{\alpha_1}\cdot p_2^{\alpha_2}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\alpha_k}\cdot p_1^{\alpha_1'}\cdot p_2^{\alpha_2'}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\alpha_k'}}h^{p_1^{\beta_1}\cdot p_2^{\beta_2}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\beta_k}\cdot p_1^{\beta_1'}\cdot p_2^{\beta_2'}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\beta_k'}}\newline&=g^{mp}h^{nq}=ee=e,\end{align}$$
where
$$p=p_1^{\alpha_1'}\cdot p_2^{\alpha_2'}\cdot\cdots\cdot p_k^{\alpha_k'}\qquad\text{and}\qquad q=p_1^{\beta_1'}\cdot p_2^{\beta_2'}\cdot\dots\cdot p_k^{\beta_k'}.$$
Hence, \(G\) has an element of order \(\text{lcm}\left(m,n\right)\). \(\blacksquare\)
The Third and Final Lemma
Unlike the first two lemmas, I will not prove this one... yet. This is because it is not yet clear to me how one would go about proving it. Nevertheless, I will use it in tandem with the second lemma to show that \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\), where \(p\) is prime, has a generator.
Lemma 3 (Without Proof). A polynomial in \(\mathbb Z_p\left[X\right]\) of degree \(n\), where \(p\) is prime, has at most \(n\) roots in \(\mathbb Z_p\).
The Silver Bullet
Here we put an end to our big claim!
Theorem. \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\cong\mathbb Z_{p-1}\), where \(p\) is prime.
Proof. Let \(m\) be the least common multiple of the orders of the elements of \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\). By Lemma 2, \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\) has an element of order \(m\). By Lagrange’s theorem, \(m\) divides \(p-1\), which implies that \(m\leqslant p-1\). Moreover, the order of every element in \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\) divides \(m\), which implies that each one of them is a root of the polynomial \(X^m-1\) in \(\mathbb Z_p\left[X\right]\). By Lemma 3, this polynomial has at most \(m\) roots, which implies that \(p-1\leqslant m\). Therefore, \(p-1=m\), so \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\) is cyclic. Hence, by Lemma 1, \(\mathbb Z_p^\times\) is isomorphic to \(\mathbb Z_{p-1}\). \(\blacksquare\)