So I was thinking about the ridiculous motive of Voldemort’s daughter in “The Cursed Child” and I think I figured out how Rowling could have made it a bit more believable. I mean, who buys that Voldemort would just casually bang Bellatrix in the middle of second wizarding war, right? He wasn’t even human then, so how could we expect him to have functioning genitals and any sex drive at all? Through the entire seven books Voldemort was rather asexual, too twisted, too consumed by his obsessions to display even slightest human instincts.
So here’s my idea: if Rowling wanted Voldemort to have a child, it should have been born during the first wizarding war. Back then Voldemort still had a functioning human body - rather handsome even - and he was trying to win over the old wizarding bloodlines. I can easily imagine the heads of old families encouraging, even pushing young Tom Riddle to sire an heir - to strengthen the bonds, ensure continuity, start a powerful bloodline, you name it.
Back then Bellatrix was young, healthy, pretty and probably easily influenced - probably wouldn’t take much persuasion to talk her into it, and Tom might have even liked her, so the entire act seems much more natural.
Plus that would perfectly explain Bellatrix being such an obsessed lunatic during second war - she spent years in Azkaban, knowing her child is out there and all she can do to protect it is to keep her mouths shut. And she desperately tries to win scraps of sympathy from Voldemort, remembering him as the man he was, as her child’s father, knowing he’s her best chance to see the kid ever again and hoping that if he likes her, he’ll take care of their child as well.
Any thoughts?