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SECTION II: ARGUMENT 6-10

6. Company Alpha buys free-travel coupons from people who are awarded the coupons by Bravo Airlines for flying frequently on Bravo airplanes. The coupons are sold to people who pay les for the coupons than they would pay by purchasing tickets from Bravo. This making of coupons results in lost 89 revenue for Bravo. To discourage the buying and selling of free-travel coupons, it would be best for Bravo Airlines to restrict the A. number of coupons that a person can be awarded in a particular year B. use of the coupons to those who were awarded the coupons and members of their immediate families C. days that the coupons can be used to Monday through Friday D. amount of time that the coupons can be used after they are issued E. number of routes on which travelers can use the coupons Explanation: Restricting use of the coupons to the immediate families of those awarded them, as B suggests, would make the coupons valueless for anyone else, so that marketing the coupons would no longer be possible. The coupons, however, would still allow the people to whom Bravo gives them to enjoy free travel. Thus, awarding coupons would remain a strong incentive to frequent travel on Bravo. Therefore, B is the best answer. A would do nothing to reduce the resale value of the coupons. C, D and E all not only fail to prevent Alpha’s coupon sales from competing with Bravo’s own ticket sales, but also potentially reduce the usefulness of the coupons to the people to whom they are awarded. 7. The ice on the front windshield of the car had formed when moisture condensed during the night. The ice melted quickly after the car was warmed up the next morning because the defrosting vent, which blows on the front windshield, was turned on full force. Which of the following, if true, most seriously jeopardizes the validity of the explanation for the speed with which the ice melted? A. The side windows had no ice condensation on them B. Even though no attempt was made to defrost the back window, the ice there melted at the same rate as did the ice on the front windshield. C. The speed at which ice on a window melts increases as the temperature of the air blown on the window increases D. The warm air from the defrosting vent for the front windshield cools rapidly as it dissipates throughout the rest of the car. E. The defrosting vent operates efficiently even when the heater, which blows warm air toward the feet or faces of the driver and passengers, is on. Explanation: The speed with which the ice on the windshield melted is attributed to the air blowing full force from the defrosting vent onto the front windshield. This explanation of B is undermined if, as B states, no attempt was made to defrost the back window and the ice on the back window melted as quickly as did the ice on the windshield. Therefore, B is the best answer. In the absence of other information, the lack of ice condensation on the side windows that is mentioned in A is irrelevant to the validity of the explanation. C might support the explanation, since the air from the defrosting vent was warm. Neither of D and E gives a reason to doubt that air from the vent caused the ice’s melting, and thus neither jeopardizes the explanation’s validity. 90 8. To prevent some conflicts of interest, Congress could prohibit high-level government officials from accepting positions as lobbyists for three years after such officials leave government service. One such official concluded, however, that such a prohibition would be unfortunate because it would prevent high-level government officials from earning a livelihood for three years. The official’s conclusion logically depends on which of the following assumptions? A. Laws should not restrict the behavior of former government officials. B. Lobbyists are typically people who have previously been high-level government officials. C. Low-level government officials do not often become lobbyists when they leave government service. D. High-level government officials who leave government service are capable of earning a livelihood only as lobbyists. E. High-level government officials who leave government service are currently permitted to act as lobbyists for only three years. Explanation: The official argues that prohibiting high-level government officials from accepting positions as lobbyists for three years would prevent the officials from earning a livelihood for that period. The reasoning tacitly excludes the possibility of such officials earning a living through work other than lobbying. Therefore, D, which expresses this tacit assumption, is the best answer. The official’s argument does not depend on the assumption in A, since the argument would not be invalidated if some restrictions on the behavior of government officials were desirable. The official’s argument does not depend on the assumption in B, since the argument would not be invalidated if lobbyists were not typically former high-level government officials. The official’s argument does not depend on the assumption in C, since the argument would not be invalidated if former low-level government officials did often become lobbyists. The official’s argument does not depend on the assumption in E, since the argument would not be invalidated if former high-level government officials could act as lobbyists indefinitely. 9. A conservation group in the United States is trying to change the long-standing image of bats as frightening creatures. The group contends that bats are feared and persecuted solely because they are shy animals that are active only at night. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy of the group’s contention? A. Bats are steadily losing natural roosting places such as caves and hollow trees and are thus turning to more developed areas for roosting. B. Bats are the chief consumers of nocturnal insects and thus can help make their hunting territory more pleasant for humans. C. Bats are regarded as frightening creatures not only in the United States but also in Europe, Africa, and South America. D. Raccoons and owls are shy and active only at night; yet they are not generally feared and persecuted. 91 E. People know more about the behavior of other greatly feared animal species, such as lions, alligators, and greatly feared animal species, such as lions, alligators, and snakes, than they do about the behavior of bats. Explanation: The group’s contention suggests that animals that are shy and active at night are feared and persecute for that reason. D establishes that raccoons and owls are shy and active at night, but that they are neither feared nor persecuted. Therefore, D is the best answer. Although an increasing prevalence of bats might explain the importance of addressing people’s fear of bats, A does not address the original causes of that fear. B and E, while relevant to the rationality of people’s fear of bats, do not affect the assessment of the accuracy of the group’s contention. That bats are feared outside the United States, as C states, does not conflict with the group’s explanation for fear of bats in the United States. 10. Meteorite explosions in the Earth’s atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of a twelve-megaton nuclear blast, occur about once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex computer programs to unexpected circumstances is unpredictable. Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear-missile defense system controlled by a complex computer program? A. Within a century after its construction, the system would react inappropriately and might accidentally start a nuclear war. B. The system would be destroyed if an explosion of a large meteorite occurred in the Earth’s atmosphere. C. It would be impossible for the system to distinguish the explosion of a large meteorite from the explosion of a nuclear weapon. D. Whether the system would respond inappropriately to the explosion of a large meteorite would depend on the location of the blast. E. It is not certain what the system’s response to the explosion of a large meteorite would be, if its designers did not plan for such a contingency. Explanation: If the defense system designers did not plan for the contingency of large meteorite explosions, such explosions would, from the system’s perspective, be unexpected. The system’s response to such explosions is consequently unpredictable. E expresses this inference and is thus the best answer. A cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that no meteorite explosion will occur within a century. B cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that meteorite explosions in the atmosphere would destroy the system. C cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that an appropriately designed nuclear defense system might be able to distinguish nuclear from meteorite explosions. D cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that the location of blasts would determine the appropriateness of defense system’s response.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT 25 Questions 1-5

1. Which of the following best completes the passage below? In a survey of job applicants, two-fifths admitted to being at least a little dishonest. However, the survey may underestimate the proportion of job applicants who are dishonest, because____. A. some dishonest people taking the survey might have claimed on the survey to be honest B. some generally honest people taking the survey might have claimed on the survey to be dishonest C. some people who claimed on the survey to be at least a little dishonest may be very dishonest D. some people who claimed on the survey to be dishonest may have been answering honestly E. some people who are not job applicants are probably at least a little dishonest Explanation: A is the best answer. If applicants who are in fact dishonest claimed to be honest, the survey results would show a smaller proportion of dishonest applicants than actually exists. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. B is inappropriate because generally honest applicants who claimed to be dishonest could contribute to the overestimation, but not to the underestimation, of dishonest applicants. D is inappropriate because applicants who admitted their dishonesty would not contribute to an underestimation of the proportion of dishonest applicants. C and E are inappropriate because the argument is concerned neither with degrees of dishonesty nor with the honesty of non-applicants. 2. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage? A. Insurance company statisticians do not believe that moving to Hawaii will significantly lengthen the average Louisianan’s life. B. The governor of Louisiana has falsely alleged that statistics for his state are inaccurate. C. The longevity ascribed to Hawaii’s current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors. D. Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect to live longer than 77 years. E. Most of the Hawaiian Islands have levels of air pollution well below the national average for the United States. Explanation: C is the best answer. This choice suggests that a significant proportion of Hawaii’s population is genetically predisposed to be long lived. Since Louisianans are not necessarily so predisposed, and since the Louisianans’ children will acquire their genetic characteristics from their parents, not from their birthplace, this 87 choice presents a reason to doubt that Hawaiian born children of native Louisianans will have an increased life expectancy. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. Because the conclusion concerns people born in Hawaii, not the average Louisianan, A does not weaken the conclusion. Because the governor’s allegation is false, it cannot affect the conclusion. D fails to weaken the conclusion because it is consistent with the information given and the conclusion about life expectancy. By suggesting that Hawaii’s environment is in one respect particularly healthy, E supports the conclusion. 3. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage? A. As population density increases in Hawaii, life expectancy figures for that state are likely to be revised downward. B. Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Hawaii and less numerous in Louisiana. C. Twenty-five percent of all Louisianans who move to Hawaii live longer than 77 years. D. Over the last decade, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for Louisianans than for Hawaiians. E. Studies show that the average life expectancy for Hawaiians who move permanently to Louisiana is roughly equal to that of Hawaiians who remain in Hawaii. Explanation: If B is true, the greater abundance of longevity-promoting environmental factors it mentions is probably at least partly responsible for the higher life expectancy in Hawaii. Children born in Hawaii benefit from these factors from birth, and thus Louisianans who have children in Hawaii increase their children’s chances of living longer. Therefore, B is the best answer. If life expectancy in Hawaii is likely to be falling, as A says, the argument is weakened rather than strengthened. C and E, in the absence of other relevant information, have no bearing on the conclusion; thus, they are inappropriate. D is irrelevant, because the information it mentions about rates would already have been incorporated into the statistics cited in the passage. 4. Insurance Company X is considering issuing a new policy to cover services required by elderly people who suffer from diseases that afflict the elderly. Premiums for the policy must be low enough to attract customers. Therefore, Company X is concerned that the income from the policies would not be sufficient to pay for the claims that would be made. Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize Company X’s losses on the policies? A. Attracting middle-aged customers unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years. B. Insuring only those individuals who did not suffer any serious diseases as children C. Including a greater number of services in the policy than are included in other policies of lower 88 cost D. Insuring only those individuals who were rejected by other companies for similar policies E. Insuring only those individuals who are wealthy enough to pay for the medical services Explanation: Insurance companies can improve the ratio of revenues to claims paid, thus minimizing losses, if they insure as many people belonging to low-risk groups as they can. Because the strategy described in A adds a low-risk group to the pool of policyholders, this choice is the best answer. B is irrelevant, since no link is established between childhood diseases and diseases affecting the elderly. C is inappropriate, since increasing the number of services covered is unlikely to minimize losses. D is inappropriate, since it would increase the likelihood that claims against the policy will be made. Because policyholders will file claims against the policy for services covered rather than pay for the cost of the services themselves, E is irrelevant. 5. A program instituted in a particular state allows parents to prepay their children’s future college tuition at current rates. The program then pays the tuition annually for the child at any of the state’s public colleges in which the child enrolls. Parents should participate in the program as a means of decreasing the cost for their children’s college education. Which of the following, if true, is the most appropriate reason for parents NOT to participate in the program? A. the parents are unsure about which public college in the state the child will attend. B. The amount of money accumulated by putting the prepayment funds in an interest-bearing account today will be greater than the total cost of tuition for any of the public colleges when the child enrolls. C. The annual cost of tuition at the state’s public colleges is expected to increase at a faster rate than the annual increase in the cost of living. D. Some of the state’s public colleges are contemplating large increases in tuition next year. E. The prepayment plan would not cover the cost of room and board at any of the state’s public colleges. Explanation: The passage recommends that parents participate in a tuition prepayment program as a means of decreasing the cost of their children’s future college education. If B is true, placing the funds in an interest bearing account would be more cost-effective than participating in the prepayment program. Therefore, B would be a reason for NOT participating and is the best answer. A is not clearly relevant to deciding whether to participate since the program applies to whatever public college the child might attend. C and D, by stating that tuition will increase, provide support for participating in the program. E is not clearly relevant to deciding whether to participate, since the expenses mentioned fall outside the scope of the program.

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Section 1 passage 5

Passage 5 Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the (5) cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of different ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used (10) by the early investigators, it will not form two whole embryos. A debate arose over what exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do theybecome irreversibly committed to their fates, and what (15) are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell what to become? But the debate could not be resolved because no one was able to ask the crucial questions in a form in which they could be pursued productively. 83 Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have (20) opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now investigators think they know at least some of the molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able o show that, in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg (25) is fertilized. Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as morphogenetic determinants. They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the (30) cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and, presumably, govern the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the (35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different from the start and so can be qualitatively different in their own gene activity. The substances that Gross studied are maternal (40) messenger RNA’s --products of certain of the maternal genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the (45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resembles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded (50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which they are located. 25. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are (A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells (B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally (C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function (D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg 84 (E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual Explanation: E is the best answer. The second and third paragraphs of the passage indicate that morphogenetic determinants are substances in the embryo that are activated after the egg has been fertilized and that “tell a cell what to become” (lines 21-23). If, as the author asserts in the first paragraph, biologists have succeeded in dividing an embryo into two parts, each of which survives and develops into a normal embryo, it can be concluded that the quantity of morphogenetic determinants in the early embryo is greater than that required for the development of a single individual. 26. The main topic of the passage is (A) the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms (B) the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology (C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development (D) cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic development (E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular biology Explanation: D is the best answer. In identifying the main topic of the passage, you must consider the passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, the author provides a historical context for the debate described in the second paragraph, concerning when and how the determination of embryo cells takes place. The third and forth paragraphs provide a specific example of the “Recent discoveries in molecular biology” (lines 28-29) that may lead to the resolution of that debate. 27. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they made which of the following mistakes? (A) They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts. (B) They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the separation experiment. (C) They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used for such experiments. (D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life. (E) They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of the two parts was concerned. Explanation: E is the best answer. According to the author, early investigators arrived at the conclusion that the cells of the embryo are undetermined because they “found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos” (lines 1-6). However, later biologists discovered that when an embryo was cut in places different from the one used by the 85 early investigators, it did not form two whole embryos. Because the earlier biologists apparently arrived at their conclusion without attempting to cut an embryo in different planes, it would appear that they assumed, erroneously, that different ways of separating the embryos would not affect the fate of the two embryo parts.

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SECTION I: READING Passage 4

The majority of successful senior managers do not closely follow the classical rational model of first clarifying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options, estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision, (5) and only then taking action to implement the decision. Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intuition” to mangage a network of interrelated problems 79 that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency, (10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process to thinking. Generations of writers on management have recognized that some practicing managers rely heavily on intuition. In general, however, such writers display a (15) poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality: others view it as an excuse for capriciousness. Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is (20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intuition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly. This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based (25) on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experience that build skills. A third function of intuition is to synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth, some managers use intuition as a check on the results (30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those who use such systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions suggested by these methods which run counter to their (35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns. (40) One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from acting. Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied (45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert. 80 Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage- (50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a course of action simply to learn more about an issue. They then use the results of the action to develop a more complete understanding of the issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often (55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing the solution. 19. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to (A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem (B) identify a problem (C) bring together disparate facts (D) stipulate clear goals (E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem Explanation: D is the best answer. The question requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way in which senior managers use intuition. The passage does not mention stipulating goals. 20. The passage suggests which of the following about the “writers on management” mentioned in line 12? (A) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis. (B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual managers. (C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do. (D) They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business decisions. (E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in managerial practice. Explanation: D is the best answer. The author asserts that the writers in question “display a poor grasp of what intuition is” (lines 21-22). The next paragraph presents a view that, according to the author of the passage, characterizes intuition more accurately than the writers on management do. Isenberg’s research is specifically described as showing the ways in which managers use intuition (lines 28-30). Therefore, what Isenberg correctly comprehends, and the writers in question misunderstand, is how managers use intuition, as this choice states. 21. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’ experience” (line 28) as it is presented in the passage? (A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover whether the action changes the problem at hand. 81 (B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem. (C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the problem at hand. (D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis. (E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies suggested by a problem. Explanation: C is the best answer. An “Aha! Experience” is said in lines 37-41 to result from the synthesizing of “isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated picture.” This choice is the best example of this kind of process. The connecting of seemingly unrelated facts and experiences mentioned in the answer choice is equivalent to synthesizing “isolated bits of data and practice,” and the pattern referred to is comparable to an “integrated picture.” 22. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT (A) evaluation of a problem (B) creation of possible solutions to a problem (C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision (D) action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem (E) comparison of the probable effects of different solutions to a problem Explanation: D is the best answer. The question requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT mentioned in the passage as a component of the classical model of decision analysis. Only this choice, “action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem,” does not appear in the passage. 23. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis? (A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not. (B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not (C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not. (D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not. (E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering; manager X does not. Explanation: C is the best answer. The question requires you to compare behavior based on intuition with behavior based on formal decision analysis. This choice specifies that the manager who uses intuition incorporates action into the decision-making process, but the manager who uses formal analysis does 82 not. This distinction is made in several places in the passage. Lines 6-7 emphasize that decision-making and action-taking are separate steps in formal decision analysis: “making a decision, and only then taking action.” On the other hand, those who use intuition “integrate action into the process of thinking” (lines 15-16).Again, the author mentions that in the intuitive style of management, “ ‘thinking’ is inseparable from acting” (lines 60-61), and “action is often part of defining the problem” (lines 80-81). 24. The passage provides support for which of the following statements? (A) Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis. (B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions. (C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills (D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the number of possible solutions. (E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently. Explanation: E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify a statement that can be inferred from information in the passage but is not explicitly stated. The author asserts that intuitive managers can “move rapidly to engender a plausible solution” (lines 53-54) and that their intuition is based on “experience that builds skill” (line 37). This implies that the combination of skill and rapidity enables mangers to employ their practical experience more efficiently, as this choice states.

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SECTION I: READING Passage 3

Federal efforts to aid minority businesses began in the 1960’s when the Small Business Administration (SBA) began making federally guaranteed loans and government- sponsored management and technical assistance (5) available to minority business enterprises. While this program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to form new businesses, the results were disappointing, since managerial inexperience, unfavorable locations, and capital shortages led to high failure rates. Even 15 (10) years after the program was implemented, minority business receipts were not quite two percent of the national economy’s total receipts. Recently federal policymakers have adopted an approach intended to accelerate development of the (15) minority business sector by moving away from directly aiding small minority enterprises and toward supporting larger, growth-oriented minority firms through intermediary companies. In this approach, large corporations participate in the development of successful and stable (20) minority businesses by making use of governmentsponsored venture capital. The capital is used by a participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise Small Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The MESBIC then provides capital and guidance to minority (25) businesses that have potential to become future suppliers or customers of the sponsoring company. MESBIC’s are the result of the belief that providing established firms with easier access to relevant management techniques and more job-specific experience, as (30) well as substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms a greater opportunity to develop sound business foundations than does simply making general management experience and small amounts of capital available. Further, since potential markets for the minority busi- (35) nesses already exist through the sponsoring companies, the minority businesses face considerably less risk in terms of location and market fluctuation. Following early financial and operating problems, sponsoring corporations began to capitalize MESBIC’s far above (40) the legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate sufficient income and to sustain the quality of management needed. MESBIC’c are now emerging as increasingly important financing sources for minority enterprises. 76 (45) Ironically, MESBIC staffs, which usually consist of Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to approach investments in minority firms more pragmatically than do many MESBIC directors, who are usually senior managers from sponsoring corporations. The latter (50) often still think mainly in terms of the “social responsibility approach” and thus seem to prefer deals that are riskier and less attractive than normal investment criteria would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint have produced uneasiness among many minority staff members, (55) who feel that minority entrepreneurs and businesses should be judged by established business considerations. These staff members believe their point of view is closer to the original philosophy of MESBIC’s and they are concerned that, unless a more prudent course is followed, MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely to re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA approach. 13. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage? (A) The use of MESBIC’s for aiding minority entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for success than does the original SBA approach. (B) There is a crucial difference in point of view between the staff and directors of some MESBIC’s. (C) After initial problems with management and marketing, minority businesses have begun to expand at a steady rate. (D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to form new businesses now have several equally successful federal programs on which to rely. (E) For the first time since 1960, large corporations are making significant contributions to the development of minority businesses. Explanation: A is the best answer. The passage begins by indicating that the results of the SBA approach to aiding minority entrepreneurs “were disappointing” (line 11). Lines 62-64 state that “MESBIC’s are now emerging as increasingly important financing sources for minority enterprises.” Much of the passage is devoted to supporting the author’s view that MESBIC’x have the greater potential for success, and the last sentence in the passage confirms this view. 14. According to the passage, the MESBIC approach differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC’s (A) seek federal contracts to provide marketsfor minority businesses (B) encourage minority businesses to provide markets for other minority businesses (C) attempt to maintain a specified rate of growth in the minority business sector 77 (D) rely on the participation of large corporations to finance minority businesses (E) select minority businesses on the basis of their location Explanation: D is the best answer. In the second paragraph, the author describes the MESBIC approach as one in which “large corporations participate in the development of successful and stable minority businesses by making use of government-sponsored venture capital”(lines 26-31). There is no indication in the passage that the SBA approach relies on the participation of large corporations. 15. Which of the following does the author cite to support the conclusion that the results of the SBA program were disappointing? (A) The small number of new minority enterprises formed as a result of the program (B) The small number of minority enterprises that took advantage of the management and technical assistance offiered under the program (C) The small percentage of the nation’s business receipts earned by minority enterprises following the programs, implementation. (D) The small percentage of recipient minority enterprises that were able to repay federally guaranteed loans made under the program (E) The small number of minority enterprises that chose to participate in the program Explanation: C is the best answer. The author concludes that the results of the SBA approach “were disappointing”(line 11). Then he supports the conclusion by citing the fact that “Even 15 years after the program was implemented, minority business receipts were not quite two percent of the national economy’s total receipts.”(lines 14-18). 16. Which of the following statements about the SBA program can be inferred from the passage? (A) The maximum term for loans made to recipient businesses was 15 years. (B) Business loans were considered to be more useful to recipient businesses than was management and technical assistance. (C) The anticipated failure rate for recipient businesses was significantly lower than the rate that actually resulted. (D) Recipient businesses were encouraged to relocate to areas more favorable for business development. (E) The capitalization needs of recipient businesses were assessed and then provided for adequately. Explanation: C is the best answer. This question asks you to draw an inference about the SBA program. Although the passage does not actually state that the failure rate for SBA recipient businesses was higher than anticipated, in the first paragraph the author does sate that the results of the SBA program were disappointing, in part because of the high failure rate among SBA-sponsored businesses. From this it can be inferred that the anticipated failure rate was lower than the actual rate. 78 17. The author refers to the “financial and operating problems”(line 38 ) encountered by MESBIC’s primarily in order to (A) broaden the scope of the discussion to include the legal considerations of funding MESBIC’S through sponsoring companies (B) call attention to the fact that MESBIC’s must receive adequate funding in order to function effectively (C) show that sponsoring companies were willing to invest only $500,000 of government-sponsored venture capital in the original MESBIC’s (D) compare SBA and MESBIC limits on minimum funding (E) refute suggestions that MESBIC’s have been only marginally successful Explanation: B is the best answer. The reference in lines 56-57 to “financial and operating problems” appears in the context of a discussion of why corporations came to capitalize MESBIC”s “far above the legal minimum of $ 500,000.” The problems are cited to illustrate the reasons that MESBIC’s need more than the minimum funding required by law, and thus call attention to this need. 18. The author’s primary objective in the passage is to (A) disprove the view that federal efforts to aid minority businesses have been ineffective (B) explain how federal efforts to aid minority businesses have changed since the 1960’s (C) establish a direct link between the federal efforts to aid minority businesses made before the 1960’s and those made in the 1980’s (D) analyze the basis for the belief that job-specific experience is more useful to minority businesses than is general management experience (E) argue that the “social responsibility approach” to aiding minority businesses is superior to any other approach Explanation: B is the best answer. The passage describes efforts undertaken in the 1960’s to and minority businesses and then describes MESBIC’s , a newer approach to such efforts.

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SECTION I: READING Passage 2

Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites (5) once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder. I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that (10)would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for (15)the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities. (20) You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique (25)artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply, everything that comes our of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong. (30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 72 uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions (35)known as/melekh handles have been found in abundance--- more than 4,000 examples so far. The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to (40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to (45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer A purchaser could even be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes. It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging (50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it? 7. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose (A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts (B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession (C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value (D) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites (E) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts Explanation: B is the best answer. The first paragraph identifies two major problems faced by the archaeological profession: inadequate funding and illegal digging. Lines 12-15 indicate that the author is going to suggest how to remedy both problems, thereby benefiting the archaeological profession. The author proceeds to propose allowing the sale of excavated artifacts (lines 16-19) and to explain how this would solve both problems (lines 19-26). The author then supports the proposal by countering possible objections to it, and in the last paragraph explains how the proposal would curb illegal digging (lines 74-80). Thus, the way information is organized in the passage indicates that the author’s purpose is to suggest that allowing the sale of excavated artifacts would provide funds for the archaeological profession and 73 curb illegal digging. 8. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT: (A) A market for such artifacts already exists. (B) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value. (C) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts. (D) Museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts. (E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already catalogued in museum collections. Explanation: E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify the answer choice that CANNOT be inferred from the passage. Nothing in the passage implies that duplicate artifacts exceed museum objects in quality. 9. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum basements? (A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts. (B) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage. (C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become separated from each other. (D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity. (E) Such artifacts’ often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage. Explanation: E is the best answer. The disadvantages of storing artifacts in museum basements are discussed in the fifth paragraph. Lines 56-60 state that “There is not enough money…to catalogue the finds” and declare that as a result stored objects cannot be located. 10. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines 31-34) to emphasize which of the following points? (A) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable, although more rare, than royal seal impressions. (B) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists. (C) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities. (D) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of salable artifacts. (E) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread, particularly on the island of Cyprus. Explanation: C is the best answer. In lines 38-41, the author refutes the assertion that every object excavated has potential scientific value and therefore should not be sold. In lines 42-44, the author defines those objects that do not have scientific value: “the thousands of pottery vessels…that are essentially duplicates of one another.” The Cyprus excavation appears in the next sentence as an example of one location in which such duplicate artifacts have been found in large 74 quantities. The reference to “2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs” highlights the profusion and uniformity of the Cyprus finds. Thus, the excavation is mentioned in order to emphasize the ready availability of objects that lack unique value and therefore could be sold. 11. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions? (A) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts. (B) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise. (C) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts. (D) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts. (E) Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal excavators. Explanation: A is the best answer. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excation appears in lines 74-75, in which the author predicts that such official sale would reduce demand for “the clandestine product.” The rhetorical question that follows (lines 76-80) indicates that the author finds it unlikely that any purchaser would prefer objects of unknown provenance to objects of known origin, or, to rephrase, the author assumes that most people would prefer to purchase objects of authenticated provenance, as this choice states. 12. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal? (A) Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts. (B) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall. (C) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors. (D) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of artifacts for resale. (E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more commonplace. Explanation: C is the best answer. The author begins the third paragraph by saying “you might object…” in order to anticipate possible objections to the adoption of his proposal. In the next sentence the author asserts that “ancient artifacts…should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder” 9lines 29-33), acknowledging an opponent’s fear that individuals might be allowed to purchase objects that ought to be displayed in public institutions. This objection is paraphrased in this choice.

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SECTION I: READING Passage 1

SECTION I: READING naturally occurring chemical called adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next. (10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing, adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc- (15) turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would. For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri- (20) buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodiesterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentrations in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at (25) the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behavioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 68 (30) of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other compounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not stimulants. To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre- (35) venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors (40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomotion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most (45) effective compounds in both regards. There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very (50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally (55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones. 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood (B) present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them (C) summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems encountered in the first two (D) describe an alternative hypothesis and provide evidence and arguments that support it (E) challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the inconsistencies and contradictions in it Explanation: D is the best answer. This question requires you to identify the primary concern of the passage as a whole. The first paragraph presents a recent hypothesis about how caffeine affects behavior. The second paragraph describes an earlier and widely accepted hypothesis about how caffeine affects 69 behavior, and then presents evidence that is not consistent with that hypothesis. The third and fourth paragraphs return to the newer hypothesis introduced in the first paragraph and provide “evidence and arguments” that support this alternative hypothesis. 2. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine (A) stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans, whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans only (B) has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine has only a stimulatory effect (C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such concentrations (D) permits release of neurotransmitters when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine inhibits such release (E) inhibits both neuron firing and the production of phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient concentration in the brain, whereas adenosine inhibits only neuron firing Explanation: D is the best answer. Lines 11-23 state that adenosine “depresses neuron firing” by binding to specific receptors on neuronal membranes, which in turn inhibits the release of neurotransmitters. Lines 27-35 describe Snyder et al’s hypothesis about caffeine. They propose that caffeine binds to specific receptors on neuronal membranes, which prevents adenosine from binding to those receptors and “allows the neurons to fire more readily that they otherwise would”. Therefore, according to Snyder et al, caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine permits neurotransmitter release when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine inhibits neruotransmitter release. 3. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX, Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for psychoactive drugs to have (A) mixed effects in the brain (B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain (C) close structural relationships with caffeine (D) depressive effects on mouse locomotion (E) the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors in the brain Explanation: A is the best answer. The effects of IBMX are discussed in the last paragraph of the passage. IBMX apparently binds to adenosine-specific receptors on neuronal membranes, but, in contrast to the other caffeine derivatives that Snyder et al experimented with, IBMX depresses rather than stimulates mouse locomotion. Snyder et al respond to this experimental result by stating that IBMX has “mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs”(line 104-107) 4. According to Snyder et al, all of the following compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain EXCEPT 70 (A) IBMX (B) caffeine (C) adenosine (D) theophylline (E) phosphodiesterase Explanation: E is the best answer. This question asks you to identify which compound, according to Snyder et al, does NOT bind to specific receptors in the brain. Phosphodiesterase, identified as an “enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP”(lines 40-42), is the only compound that is not identified as one that binds to specific receptors in the brain. 5. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed to which of the following? (A) The chemical relationship between caffeine and phosphodiesterase (B) The structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine (C) The structural similarity between caffeine and neurotransmitters (D) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior (E) The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in the brain Explanation: B is the best answer. This question asks you to identify information that is suggested rather than directly stated in the passage. To answer it, first look for the location in the passage of the information specified in the question. The A1 and A2 receptors are mentioned in lines 23-26. Lines 27-35 go on to describe Snyder et al’s hypothesis about the effects of caffeine on behavior. They propose that caffeine, “which is structurally similar to adenosine,” is able to bind to A1 and A2 receptors in the brain, the same receptors that adenosine normally binds to. Thus, the passage suggests that the structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine may be partially responsible for caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors. 6. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most probably in order to (A) reveal some of the assumptions underlying their theory (B) summarize a major finding of their experiments (C) point out that their experiments were limited to the mouse (D) indicate that their experiments resulted only in general correlations (E) refute the objections made by supporters of the older theory Explanation: B is the best answer. This question asks you to identify the function of a quotation in the third paragraph of the passage. The third paragraph provides evidence for Snyder et al’s hypothesis by discussing experiments they conducted on mice. The quotation in lines 74-84 “summarizes” the findings of these experiments.

Snyder et al found that a number of caffeine derivatives are able to bind to specific receptors in the brains of mice just as adenosine does, and that the derivatives that are most successful at stimulating locomotion are also the most successful in competing with adenosine in binding at the receptors. This finding is “major” in that it supports their hypothesis that the simulative effects of caffeine are a result of its ability to compete with adenosine.

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SECTION III: READING

It has long been known that the rate of oxidative metabolism (the process that uses oxygen to convert food into energy) in any animal has a (5) profound effect on its living patterns. The high metabolic rate of small animals, for example, gives them sustained power and activity per unit of weight, but at the cost of requiring (10) constant consumption of food and water. Very large animals, with their relatively low metabolic rates, can survive well on a sporadic food supply, but can generate little metabolic energy (15) per gram of body weight. If only oxidative metabolic rate is considered, therefore, one might assume that smaller, more active, animals could prey on larger ones, at least if they (20) attacked in groups. Perhaps they could if it were not for anaerobic glycolysis, the great equalizer. Anaerobic glcolysis is a process in which energy is produced, without (25) oxygen, through the breakdown of muscle glycogen into lactic acid and adenosine tri-phosphate (ATP), the energy provider. The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function (30) of the amount of glycogen present-in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles' wet weight. Thus the anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the size of the animal. (35) If, for example, some predators had attacked a 100-ton dinosaur, normally torpid, the dinosaur would have been

able to generate almost instantaneously, via anaerobic glycolysis, the energy of (40) 3,000 humans at maximum oxidative metabolic energy production. This explains how many large species have managed to compete with their more active neighbor: the compensation for (45) a low oxidative metabolic rate is glycolysis. There are limitations, however, to this compensation. The glycogen reserves of any animal are good, at most, for (50) only about two minutes at maximum effort, after which only the normal oxidative metabolic source of energy remains. With the conclusion of a burst of activity, the lactic acid level is (55) high in the body fluids, leaving the large animal vulnerable to attack until the acid is reconverted, via oxidative metabolism, by the liver into glucose, which is then sent (in part) back to the (60) muscles for glycogen resynthesis. During this process the enormous energy debt that the animal has run up through anaerobic glycolysis must be repaid, a debt that is proportionally much greater (65) for the larger vertebrates than for the smaller ones. Whereas the tiny shrew can replace in minutes the glycogen used for maximum effort, for example, the gigantic dinosaur would have required (70) more than three weeks. It might seem that this interminably long recovery time in a large vertebrate would prove a grave disadvantage for survival. Fortunately, muscle glycogen is used (75) only when needed and even then only in whatever quantity is necessary. Only in times of panic or during mortal combat would the entire reserves be consumed.

1.The primary purpose of the passage is to (A)refute a misconception about anaerobic glycolysis (B)introduce a new hypothesis about anaerobic glycolysis (C)describe the limitations of anaerobic glycolysis (D)analyze the chemistry of anaerobic glycolysis and its similarity to oxidative metabolism (E)explain anaerobic glycolysis and its effects on animal survival

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the primary purpose of the passage. In order to do this, you must consider all the parts of the passage. E is the correct answer. The passage provides information about the nature, chemistry, and limitations of anaerobic glycolysis in order to describe how the process affects animal survival.

2.According to the author, glycogen is crucial to the process of anaerobic glycolysis because glycogen (A)increases the organism's need for ATP (B)reduces the amount of ATP in the tissues (C)is an inhibitor of the oxidative metabolic production of ATP (D)ensures that the synthesis of ATP will occur speedily (E)is the material from which ATP is derived

Answer: (E) Explanation: The process of anaerobic glycolysis is described in the second paragraph. You are to determine the role of glycogen in the process. E is the correct answer. According to the first sentence in the second paragraph, glycogen is broken down into APT and lactic acid. It is the material from which ATP is derived, and therefore is crucial to anaerobic glycolysis.

3.According to the author, a major limitation of anaerobic glycolysis is that it can (A)produce in large animals more lactic acid than the liver can safely reconvert (B)necessitate a dangerously long recovery period in large animals (C)produce energy more slowly than it can be used by large animals (D)consume all of the available glycogen regardless of need (E)reduce significantly the rate at which energy is produced by oxidative metabolism

Answer: (B) Explanation: The limitations of anaerobic glycolysis as a compensation for slow oxidative metabolism are discussed in the third paragraph. To answer this question, you must identify a limitation that the author

mentions. B is the best answer. The author describes the recovery period in large animals as “interminably long.” Though he denies that it is a “grave disadvantage,” he does state that the recovery period leaves the animal vulnerable to attack.

4.The passage suggests that the total anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the vertebrate's size because (A)larger vertebrates conserve more energy than smaller vertebrates (B)larger vertebrates use less oxygen per unit weight than smaller vertebrates (C)the ability of a vertebrate to consume food is a function of its size (D)the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is directly related to its size (E)the size of a vertebrate is proportional to the quantity of energy it can utilize

Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you why anaerobic energy reserves are proportional to a vertebrate’s size. The author discusses the relationship of size to anaerobic energy reserves in the second paragraph. The second paragraph states that “The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present-in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles’ wet weight.” D is the correct answer. The passage states that the amount of glycogen is a fixed proportion of the vertebrate’s muscle weight. If the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is related to its size, then the amount of glycogen must increase with size. Therefore, since the amount of energy that can be produced is a function of the amount of glycogen present, the animal’s energy reserves are proportional to its size.

5.The author suggests that, on the basis of energy production, a 100-ton dinosaur would have been markedly vulnerable to which of the following? I.Repeated attacks by a single smaller, more active adversary II.Sustained attack by numerous smaller, more active adversaries III.An attack by an individual adversary of similar size (A)II only (B)I and II only (C)I and III only (D)II and III only (E)I, II, and III

Answer: (A) Explanation: This question is concerned with the vulnerability of a 100-ton dinosaur to different kinds of attacks. You are to recognize the situation or situations in which the dinosaur’s method of energy production would have made it particularly vulnerable to attack. The author discusses a 100-ton dinosaur in the second paragraph. In the third paragraph the author continues the discussion of how energy production

helps the dinosaur and what price the animal’s body must pay for this help. I is not an answer. The author’s statement in the first paragraph that smaller, more active animals might be able to prey on larger ones “at least if they attacked in groups” suggests that a single smaller, more active adversary would not be a marked threat to a large animal. II is an answer. In the first paragraph, the author states that it is possible that smaller, more active animals could prey on a larger one if they attacked as a group. In the third paragraph, the author states that the energy generated by anaerobic glycolysis lasts only about two minutes when the animal puts forth maximum effort. After that, the animal is vulnerable to attack until the lactic acid in its body fluids is converted back to glycogen. For the dinosaur, this process takes about three weeks. III is not an answer. The information in the passage suggests that a 100-ton dinosaur and an adversary of similar size would have available similar amounts of energy. Thus, the dinosaur’s method of energy production would not have disadvantaged it in this situation by making it particularly vulnerable to attack. A is the correct answer. II is an answer to the question posed; I and III are not answers.

6.It can be inferred from the passage that the time required to replenish muscle glycogen following anaerobic glycolysis is determined by which of the following factors? I.Rate of oxidative metabolism II.Quantity of lactic acid in the body fluids III.Percentage of glucose that is returned to the muscles (A)I only (B)III only (C)I and II only (D)I and III only (E)I, II, and III

Answer: (E) Explanation: To answer this question, you must infer from the information given in the third paragraph what factors influence the amount of time it will take an animal to replace the muscle glycogen it used during the production of energy by means of anaerobic glycolysis. I is an answer. The lactic acid left in the muscles following anaerobic glycolysis is reconverted, by means of oxidative metabolism, into glucose for use in muscle glycogen resynthesis. Therefore, the rate at which oxidative metabolism takes place is a factor in determining how quickly the reconversion takes place. II is an answer. Muscle glycogen is replenished by the reconversion of lactic acid into glucose. If the rate of reconversion is held constant, a larger quantity of lactic acid will take more time to reconvert than will a smaller amount. III is an answer. After lactic acid is reconverted to glucose, part of it is sent to the muscles for glycogen resynthesis. Sending a greater proportion to the muscles will decrease the time required to repay the animal’s energy debt. E is the correct answer. I, II and III are all factors.

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SECTION III: READING

"I want to criticize the social system, and to show it at work, at its most intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative statement about her intentions in (5) writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly been ignored by the critics, since it highlights an aspect of her literary interests very different from the traditional picture of the "poetic" (10) novelist concerned with examining states of reverie and vision and with following the intricate pathways of individual consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a realistic as well as a poetic novelist, (15) a satirist and social critic as well as a visionary: literary critics' cavalier dismissal of Woolf's social vision will not withstand scrutiny. In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged (20) by the questions of how individuals are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments, how historical forces impinge on people's lives, how class, wealth, and gender help to determine (25) people's fates. Most of her novels are rooted in a realistically rendered social setting and in a precise historical time. Woolf's focus on society has not been generally recognized because of her (30) intense antipathy to propaganda in art. The pictures of reformers in her novels are usually satiric or sharply critical.

Even when Woolf is fundamentally sympathetic to their causes, she portrays (35) people anxious to reform their society and possessed of a message or program as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of how their political ideas serve their own psychological needs. (Her Writer's (40) Diary notes: "the only honest people are the artists," whereas "these social reformers and philanthropists...harbor... discreditable desires under the disguise of loving their kind....") Woolf detested (45) what she called "preaching" in fiction, too, and criticized novelist D.H.Lawrence (among others) for working by this method. Woolf's own social criticism is expressed in the language of observation (50) rather than in direct commentary, since for her, fiction is a contemplative, not an active art. She describes phenomena and provides materials for a judgment about society and social issues; it is (55) the reader's work to put the observations together and understand the coherent point of view behind them. As a moralist, Woolf works by indirection, subtly under- mining officially accepted mores, mocking, (60) suggesting, calling into question, rather than asserting, advocating, bearing witness: hers is the satirist's art. Woolf's literary models were acute social observers like Checkhov and (65) Chaucer. As she put it in The Common Reader. "It is safe to say that not a single law has been framed or one stone set upon another because of anything Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we (70) read him, we are absorbing morality at every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose to understand as well as to judge, to know her society root and branch-a

decision curcial in order to produce art (75) rather than polemic.

1.Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? (A)Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of Virginia Woolf (B)Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the Twentieth-Century Novel (C)Trends in Contemporary Reform Movements as a Key to Understanding Virginia Woolf's Novels (D)Society as Allegory for the Individual in the Novels of Virginia Woolf (E)Virginia Woolf's Novels: Critical Reflections on the Individual and on Society

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the most appropriate title for the passage. You should consider the passage as a self-contained unit, not as part of a larger work. E is the correct answer. The topics of the passage is Woolf’s novels, and the author emphasizes that the novels contain observations concerning “how individuals are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments” (lines 20-22).

2.In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as (A)disparaging (B)ironic (C)factious (D)skeptical but resigned (E)disappointed but hopeful

Answer: (A) Explanation: The literary critics discussed in the first paragraph ignored Woolf’s intention to criticize society and saw her as a “poetic’ novelist unconcerned with the real world. This question asks you to identify the tone of the remarks made by the author of the passage concerning this assessment of Woolf’s work. A is the correct choice. The author’s characterization of the critics’ assessment as “cavalier”(line 16) can be described as “disparaging”

3.It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as a literary model because she believed that (A)Chaucer was the first English author to focus on society as a whole as well as on individual characters (B)Chaucer was an honest and forthright author, whereas novelists like D, H, Lawrence did not sincerely wish to change society (C)Chaucer was more concerned with understanding his society than with calling its accepted mores into question

(D)Chaucer's writing was greatly, if subtly, effective in influencing the moral attitudes of his readers (E)her own novels would be more widely read if, like Chaucer, she did not overtly and vehemently criticize contemporary society

Answer: (D) Explanation: The author discusses Woolf’s literary models, emphasizing Chaucer, in the last paragraph. The reason why Woolf chose Chaucer as her model is not directly stated in the passage but must be inferred from the information there. D is the correct answer. Line 61 indicates that Woolf’s work as a moralist is subtle and done ‘ by indirection.” Woolf’s statement that readers absorb morality at every pore despite the fact that no laws were changed because of Chaucer indicates that she believed Chaucer’s influence to be subtle. Therefore, it is likely that it was Chaucer’s subtle effectiveness that led Woolf to choose him as a model.

4.It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the majority of her novels was that she (A)was aware that contemporary literary critics considered the novel to be the most realistic of literary genres (B)was interested in the effect of a person's social milieu on his or her character and actions (C)needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in her novels in order to support the arguments she advanced in them (D)wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in the representation of reality did not in any way hamper the artist (E)wished to prevent critics from charging that her novels were written in an ambiguous and inexact style

Answer: (B) Explanation: In lines 25-28, the author states that Woolf’s novels presented social settings realistically. The question asks why Woolf did so. B is the best answer. In lines 19-22, Wooolf’s interest in the effect of social environment on the individual is described. The juxtaposition of these lines with the statement in lines 25-28 strongly suggests that Woolf realistically described social settings because she was interested in their effect on character.

5.Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the word "contemplative" as it is used in line 51 of the passage? (A)Gradually elucidating the rational structures underlying accepted mores (B)Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice or emotional commitment (C)Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author's perspective to the exclusion of the reader's judgment (D)Conveying a broad view of society as a whole rather than focusing on an isolated individual

consciousness (E)Appreciating the world as the artist sees it rather than judging it in moral terms

Answer: (C) Explanation: This question refers you to line 54 of the passage so that you can evaluate the context in which the author uses the word “contemplative.” You are to choose the definition of “contemplative” that is closest in meaning to the use of the word in that context. C is the best answer. Lines 51-55 suggest that a contemplative art is expressed indirectly, rather than by “aggressive assertion.” Lines 57-60 point out that Woolf, as a contemplative novelist, encourages readers to make their own judgements.

6.The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art is the satirist's (A)consistent adherence to a position of lofty disdain when viewing the foibles of humanity (B)insistence on the helplessness of individuals against the social forces that seek to determine an individual's fate (C)cynical disbelief that visionaries can either enlighten or improve their societies (D)fundamental assumption that some ambiguity must remain in a work of art in order for it to reflect society and social mores accurately (E)refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting social mores to readers for their scrutiny

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify an element that the author thinks is important in the satirist’s art. The colon in line 65 indicates that the information in lines 61-65 describing Woolf’s work leads to the statement, “hers is the satirist’s art.” This statement indicates that conclusions about Woolf’s work as a satirist can lead you to conclusions about the art of satirists in general. E is the correct answer. Lines 61-65 describe Woolf’s satirical art as providing the materials for judgments about mores in an indirect, subtle, and nonassertive way, that is, in a nonpolemical way.

7.The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions? (A)Have literary critics ignored the social criticism inherent in the work of Chekhov and Chaucer? (B)Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an introspective and visionary novelist? (C)What are the social causes with which Woolf shows herself to be sympathetic in her writings? (D)Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was with creating realistic settings for his novels? (E)Does Woolf attribute more power to social environment or to historical forces as shapers of a person's life?

Answer: (B) Explanation: This question asks you to determine which of the questions given can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this determination, you must first attempt to answer each question

using only the information presented by the author. B is the correct answer. The answer to the question is “No”. In lines 13-15, the author characterizes Woolf as realistic and satirical as well as introspective and visionary.

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SECTION III: READING

In his 1976 study of slavery in the United States, Herbert Gutman, like Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese, has rightly stressed the slaves' (5) achievements. But unlike these historians, Gutman gives plantation owners little credit for these achieve- ments. Rather, Gutman argues that one must look to the Black family and

(10) the slaves' extended kinship system to understand how crucial achievements, such as the maintenance of a cultural heritage and the development of a com- munal consciousness, were possible. (15) His findings compel attention. Gutman recreates the family and extended kinship structure mainly through an ingenious use of what any historian should draw upon, quantifiable (20) data, derived in this case mostly from plantation birth registers. He also uses accounts of ex-slaves to probe the human reality behind his statistics. These sources indicate that the two-parent (25) household predominated in slave quarters just as it did among freed slaves after emancipation. Although Gutman admits that forced separation by sale was frequent, he shows that the slaves' (30) preference, revealed most clearly on plantations where sale was infrequent, was very much for stable monogamy. In less conclusive fashion Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese had already indicated the (35) predominance of two-parent households; however, only Gutman emphasizes the preference for stable monogamy and points out what stable monogamy meant for the slaves' cultural heritage. (40) Gutman argues convincingly that the stability of the Black family encouraged the transmission of-and so was crucial in sustaining-the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious (45) expression from one generation to another, a heritage that slaves were continually fashioning out of their African and American experiences. Gutman's examination of other facets (50) of kinship also produces important

findings. Gutman discovers that cousins rarely married, an exogamous tendency that contrasted sharply with the endogamy practiced by the plantation (55) owners. This preference for exogamy, Gutman suggests, may have derived from West African rules governing marriage, which, though they differed from one tribal group to another, all involved (60) some kind of prohibition against unions with close kin. This taboo against cousins' marrying is important, argues Gutman, because it is one of many indications of a strong awareness among (65) slaves of an extended kinship network. The fact that distantly related kin would care for children separated from their families also suggests this awareness. When blood relationships were few, as in (70) newly created plantations in the South- west, "fictive" kinship arrangements took their place until a new pattern of consanguinity developed. Gutman presents convincing evidence that (75) this extended kinship structure-which he believes developed by the mid-to-late eighteenth century-provided the foundations for the strong communal consciousness that existed among (80) slaves. In sum, Gutman's study is significant because it offers a closely reasoned and original explanation of some of the slaves' achievements, one that correctly (85) emphasizes the resources that slaves themselves possessed.

1.According to the passage, Fogel, Engerman, Genovese, and Gutman have all done which of the following? I.Discounted the influence of plantation owners on slaves' achievements. II.Emphasized the achievements of slaves.

III.Pointed out the prevalence of the two-parent household among slaves. IV.Showed the connection between stable monogamy and slaves' cultural heritage. (A)I and II only (B)I and IV only (C)II and III only (D)I, III, and IV only (E)II, III, and IV only

Answer: (C) Explanation: This question asks you to compare Gutman’s work with the work of other historians mentioned in the passage. The historians Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese are mentioned in line 3, and again in lines 34-35. I is not an answer. According to lines 6-7, Gutman is unlike the other historians in that he discounts the influence of plantation owners on slaves’ achievements. II is an answer. According to lines 2-5, Gutman, like the other historians, stressed slaves’ achievements. III is an answer. According to lines 24-27, Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese pointed out the prevalence of two parent households among slaves. Lines 16-23 describe Gutman’s citing of sources to document the prevalence of two parent households. IV is not an answer. According to lines 28-33, only Gutman shows the relationship between stable monogamy and the slaves’ cultural heritage. C is the correct answer. II and III both describe something that all the historians have done. I and IV do not.

2.With which of the following statements regarding the resources that historians ought to use would the author of the passage be most likely to agree? (A)Historians ought to make use of written rather than oral accounts. (B)Historians should rely primarily on birth registers. (C)Historians should rely exclusively on data that can be quantified. (D)Historians ought to make use of data that can be quantified. (E)Historians ought to draw on earlier historical research but they should do so in order to refute it.

Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to infer something about the author’s beliefs concerning historians’ resources. In lines 18-19, the author mentions, “ what an y historian should draw upon,” that is, the resources that historians ought to use. D is the correct answer. Lines 18-20 indicate the author’s belief that historians should make use of quantifiable date.

3.Which of the following statements about the formation of the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious expression is best supported by the information presented in the passage? (A)The heritage was formed primarily out of the experiences of those slaves who attempted to preserve the stability of their families. (B)The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of those slaves who married their cousins.

(C)The heritage was formed more out of the African than out of the American experiences of slaves. (D)The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of only a single generation of slaves. (E)The heritage was formed primarily out of slaves' experiences of interdependence on newly created plantations in the Southwest.

Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to make an inference about the formation of black cultural heritage. The answer is not necessarily stated in the passage, but information in the passage permits you to make an inference. D is the correct answer. According to the passage, Black culture was passed form one generation to another and was being continually fashioned out of both African and American experiences. These two factors suggest that the heritage grew out of the experience of more than one generation.

4.It can be inferred from the passage that, of the following, the most probable reason why a historian of slavery might be interested in studying the type of plantations mentioned in line 31 is that this type would (A)give the historian access to the most complete plantation birth registers (B)permit the historian to observe the kinship patterns that had been most popular among West African tribes (C)provide the historian with evidence concerning the preference of freed slaves for stable monogamy (D)furnish the historian with the opportunity to discover the kind of marital commitment that slaves themselves chose to have (E)allow the historian to examine the influence of slaves' preferences on the actions of plantation owners

Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the most likely reason for a historian’s interest in plantations where the sale of slaves was infrequent. The answer can be inferred from the information found in lines 30-33, where it is mentioned that on these plantations the slaves’ preference for stable monogamy was revealed most clearly. D is the best answer. It can be inferred that, because sale was infrequent on the plantations mentioned in lines 31-32, families were not separated against their wishes, and so the marital commitments they themselves chose were more likely to be evident.

5.According to the passage, all of the following are true of the West African rules governing marriage mentioned in lines (57-61) EXCEPT: (A)The rules were derived from rules governing fictive kinship arrangements. (B)The rules forbade marriages between close kin. (C)The rules are mentioned in Herbert Gutman's study.

(D)The rules were not uniform in all respects from one West African tribe to another. (E)The rules have been considered to be a possible source of slaves' marriage preferences.

Answer: (A) Explanation: This question refers you to a specific portion of the passage. Lines 59-63 describe West African rules governing marriage. You are to determine, from the information in these lines or in other parts of the passage, which statement is NOT true of these rules. A is the correct answer. Fictive kinship arrangements are mentioned later in the passage. These arrangements resulted from a set of circumstances peculiar to the settlement of new plantations and did not give rise to the marriage rules of West Africa.

6.Which of the following statements concerning the marriage practices of plantation owners during the period of Black slavery in the United States can most logically be inferred from the information in the passage. (A)These practices began to alter sometime around the mid-eighteenth century. (B)These practices varied markedly from one region of the country to another. (C)Plantation owners usually based their choice of marriage partners on economic considerations. (D)Plantation owners often married earlier than slaves. (E)Plantation owners often married their cousins.

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to draw a logical conclusion from the information in the passage about the marriage practices of plantation owners. (Marriage practices of plantation owners are mentioned only in lines 56-57.) E is the correct answer. According to lines 54-57, slaves rarely married their own cousins. This contrasted sharply with the endogamy (marriage within the same family) practiced by the plantation owners. It can be inferred, therefore, that plantation owners did marry their own cousins.

7.Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? (A)The author compares and contrasts the work of several historians and then discusses areas for possible new research. (B)The author presents his thesis, draws on the work of several historians for evidence to support his thesis, and concludes by reiterating his thesis. (C)The author describes some features of a historical study and then uses those features to put forth his own argument. (D)The author summarizes a historical study, examines two main arguments from the study, and then shows how the arguments are potentially in conflict with one another. (E)The author presents the general argument of a historical study, describes the study in more detail, and concludes with a brief judgments of the study's value.

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the best description of the organization of the passage, that is, the relationship of the parts of the passage to one another. E is the correct answer choice. The author describes the general argument of Gutman’s study in lines 8-14. He then describes the details of Gutman’s study and, in lines 84-87, states the significance of the study.

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SECTION III: READING

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically (5) synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences between predator and prey (10) led to a general improvement in brain functions; however, certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others. The kind of intelligence favored by (15) the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention-that aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It (20) ranges from a passive, free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converging from (25) sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this (30) increased vigilance results in the apprehension of ever more subtle signals as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal and concentration give attention (35) its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in

the brain stem; then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent (40) images. One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to (45) the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes. The elements of intelligence and con- sciousness come together marvelously (50) to produce different styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of animal, arousal (55) stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For (60) both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not experience forethought as we know it,but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive, (65) innerdirected, tuned by the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard's instinctive snap at a passing (70) beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant (75) sounds-and yesterday's unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind. Its mood of wariness

rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of (80) anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquility over an explosive endocrine system.

1.The author is primarily concerned with (A)disproving the view that herbivores are less intelligent than carnivores (B)describing a relationship between animals' intelligence and their ecological roles (C)establishing a direct link between early large mammals and their modern counterparts (D)analyzing the ecological basis for the dominance of some carnivores over other carnivores (E)demonstrating the importance of hormones in mental activity

Answer: (B) Explanation: This question asks you identify the author’s primary concern. The author makes a number of different points, but all of them are focused on a single main concern. The primary concern of the passage is introduced in the first paragraph, and the rest of the passage presents additional information about the relationship described in that paragraph.

2.The author refers to a hungry lizard (lines 68-69) primarily in order to (A)demonstrate the similarity between the hunting methods of mammals and those of nonmammals (B)broaden the application of his argument by including an insectivore as an example (C)make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness (D)provide an additional illustration of the brutality characteristic of predators (E)offer an objection to suggestions that all animals lack consciousness

Answer: (C) Explanation: This question refers you to a specific element in the passage. You are to identify the role this element plays in the passage, specifically its role in furthering the author’s argument. The “hungry lizard’s instinctive snap” is contrasted with the mammal’s awareness. The purpose of the contrast is to make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness.

3.It can be inferred from the passage that in animals less intelligent than the mammals discussed in the passage (A)past experience is less helpful in ensuring survival (B)attention is more highly focused (C)muscular coordination is less highly developed (D)there is less need for competition among species (E)environment is more important in establishing the proper ratio of prey to predator

Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to draw a conclusion from the information in the passage about animals, not discussed in the passage, that are less intelligent than the animals that are discussed. In lines 40-44, the author defines intelligence in terms of an animals use of past experience. In the context of the entire passage, it can be inferred that more intelligent animals, such as the grassland mammals discussed, are better able to use past experience to help them survive than are less intelligent animals.

4.The sensitivity described in lines 70-76 is most clearly an example of (A)"free-floating awareness" (lines 20-21) (B)"flooding of impulses in the brain stem" (lines 36-37) (C)"the holding of consistent images" (lines 39-40) (D)"integration of details with perceived ends and purposes" (lines 45-47) (E)"silk-thin veils of tranquility"(lines 80-81)

Answer: (D) Explanation: To answer this question, you must determine the meaning of the word quoted from the passage in each answer, and then determine which quotation is most clearly illustrated by the words quoted in lines 70-76. In lines 70-76, the animal’s sensitivity connects “details” such as cold trails and distant sounds with food, the perceived end.

5.The author's attitude toward the mammals discussed in the passage is best described as (A)superior and condescending (B)lighthearted and jocular (C)apologetic and conciliatory (D)wistful and tender (E)respectful and admiring

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to use information in the passage to judge the author’s attitude toward the main subject, intelligent mammals. The author’s description of the animals’ intelligence and ability to focus attention, as well as the statement that these elements come together “marvelously” (lines 49-50), suggests that the author respects and admires at least some of their characteristics.

6.The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions? I.Why is an aroused herbivore usually fearful? II.What are some of the degrees of attention in large mammals? III.What occurs when the stimulus that causes arousal of a mammal is removed?

(A)I only (B)III only (C)I and II only (D)II and III only (E)I, II and III

Answer: (C) Explanation: To answer this question, you must first determine which of the three questions (I,II, and III) can be answered using the information in the passage. Then you must determine which of the given answer choices includes the Roman numerals of those questions. I can be answered. An aroused herbivore is fearful because it must be ready for what is ahead, including escaping from a predator. II can be answered. Lines 19-21 describe two degrees of attention in large mammals, the highest degree and the lowest. III cannot be answered. The author discusses only animals’ reactions to the presence of stimuli, not their reaction to the removal of a stimulus. Both I and II can be answered using information provided in the passage.

7.According to the passage, improvement in brain function among early large mammals resulted primarily from which of the following? (A)Interplay of predator and prey (B)Persistence of free-floating awareness in animals of the grasslands (C)Gradual dominance of warm-blooded mammals over cold-blooded reptiles (D)Interaction of early large mammals with less intelligent species (E)Improvement of the capacity for memory among herbivores and carnivores

Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to identify a reason given in the passage for improved brain function among early large mammals. A directly paraphrases the statement in lines 7-10, which describes the author’s view of the development of improved brain function in early mammals.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT 21-25

21.The Supreme Court is no longer able to keep pace with the tremendous number of cases it agrees to decide. The Court schedules and hears 160 hours of oral argument each year, and 108 hours of next year’s term will be taken up by cases left over from this year. Certainly the Court cannot be asked to

increase its already burdensome hours. The most reasonable long-range solution to this problem is to allow the Court to decide many cases without hearing oral argument; in this way the Court might eventually increase dramatically the number of cases it decides each year. Which of the following, if true, could best be used to argue against the feasibility of the solution suggested? A.The time the Court spends hearing oral argument is only a small part of the total time it spends deciding a case. B.The Court cannot legitimately avoid hearing oral argument in any case left over from last year. C.Most authorities agree that 160 hours of oral argument is the maximum number that the Court can handle per year. D.Even now the Court decides a small number of cases without hearing oral argument. E.In many cases, the delay of a hearing for a full year can be extremely expensive to the parties involved. Explanation: The passage suggests that the number of cases heard by the Supreme Court each year might eventually be increased dramatically if the Supreme Court were allowed to decide many cases without the customary oral argument. If A is true, however, then the number of cases decided by the Supreme Court is primarily determined by time other than the time spent hearing oral argument. Thus, the time spent hearing oral argument does not constitute a significant bottleneck. So this choice could be used rather well to argue against the proposal made in the passage. B is incorrect. This argues not against the feasibility of the proposed solution; it merely warns that the benefits from it would be delayed. The fact that, in view of this answer choice, there would probably not be any significant immediate relief from the burdens of hearing oral argument is irrelevant: the passage expressly concerns itself with finding a long-range solution. C is also incorrect. The thrust of the proposal is to make the 160 hours available for hearing oral argument go farther. The person making the proposal accepts the 160 hours as an upper limit. Thus, this statement supports rather than argues against the proposed solution. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. From a knowledge of the information in this answer choice no further conclusions regarding the proposal follow. This information is simply part of the current state of affairs that the proposal is designed to improve. The last choice is also incorrect. The concern of the choice-the cost to the parties involved—plays no part whatever in the argument developed in the passage; the passage is concerned solely with time-related limitations on the number of cases the Supreme Court is able to decide.

22.Some insects are able to feed on the leaves of milkweed, a toxic plant, by first cutting and draining the vein that secretes the toxin. This method of detoxification guarantees that some insects will always be able to eat milkweed, because the plant could never evolve to produce a toxin that is lethal in the trace amounts left after the vein is cut. The argument depends on which of the following assumptions? A.The insects that successfully detoxify milkweed are not able to undergo the evolutionary changes necessary to allow them to detoxify other plants. B.Unlike milkweed, other kinds of toxic plants would be able to overcome their vulnerabilities to

predators through evolutionary changes. C.The toxin-carrying veins of the mildewed plant can never evolve in such a way that insects cannot cut through. D.The method of detoxification used by insect predators of mildewed would not successfully detoxify other kinds of toxic plants. E.There are insects that use means other than draining the toxin in order to feed on toxic plants. Explanation: C is the correct answer. It is impossible to argue logically that the insects’ method of detoxification by cutting and draining guarantees that some insects will always be able to eat milkweed without assuming that for some reason that toxin-carrying veins of the milkweed can never evolve to become so strong that they would thwart the insects’ attempts to cut through them. A is incorrect. The passage does not make any claims about plants other than mildewed. The insects that detoxify mildewed by cutting veins might evolve an ability to detoxify other plants without this affecting anything relevant to the argument offered about their ability to eat mildewed. The second answer choice is incorrect. The passage is not concerned with other types of toxic plants and makes no assumption about them. The fourth answer choice is also incorrect. The method of detoxification used by the insects on milkweed might also be used to detoxify other plants without this affecting anything relevant to the argument offered about the insects’ ability to eat milkweed. The fifth answer choice is incorrect. It may be true that there are insects that use means other than draining toxins in order to feed on toxic plants, but the conclusion drawn in the passage does not depend on there being any such insects.

23.“On the whole,” Ms. Dennis remarked, “engineering students are lazier now than they used to be. I know because fewer and fewer of my students regularly do the work they are assigned.” Ms. Dennis’ conclusion depends on which of the following assumptions? A.Engineering students are working less because, in a booming market, they are spending more and more time investigating different job opportunities. B.Whether or not students do the work they are assigned is a good indication of how lazy they are. C.Engineering students should work harder than students in less demanding fields. D.Ms. Dennis’ students are doing less work because Ms. Dennis is not as effective a teacher as she once was. E.Laziness is something most people do not outgrow. Explanation: The conclusion that engineering students are lazier now than they used to be does not follow from the stated observation that fewer and fewer of Ms. Dennis’ students regularly do the work they are assigned. In fact, the conclusion is not in any way supported by the reported observation unless it is also true that failure to do the assigned work indicates laziness. That latter proposition must therefore be one of the tacit assumptions underlying the conclusion. B best expresses this assumption and is thus the correct answer. A is incorrect. Ms. Dennis concludes that her students are lazy on the basis of what she sees as a consequence of that laziness. This choice suggests a cause of that laziness. But Ms. Dennis does not

have to make any assumptions about the causes of that laziness in order to draw her conclusion. C is also incorrect. This comparison between the work demands on engineering students and those on other students is irrelevant to the question of whether the work habits of engineering students have changed over time. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. If Ms. Dennis believed that the reason for her own students’ decreasing performance was her own declining effectiveness, she would not think of her students as exemplifying trends among engineering students in general. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Whether laziness is outgrown is irrelevant to the question of whether work habits of engineering students have changed over time.

24.In recent years shrimp harvests by commercial fishermen in the South Atlantic have declined dramatically in total weight. The decline is due primarily to competition from a growing number of recreational fishermen, how are able to net young shrimp in the estuaries where they mature. Which of the following regulatory actions would most help increase the weight of shrimp harvests by commercial fishermen? A.Requiring commercial fishermen to fish in estuaries B.Limiting the total number of excursions per season for commercial fishermen C.Requiring recreational fishermen to use large-mesh nets in their fishing D.Putting an upper limit on the size of the shrimp recreational fishermen are allowed to catch E.Allowing recreational fishermen to move out of estuaries into the South Atlantic Explanation: If recreational fishermen were required to use large-mesh nets when fishing, fewer young shrimp would be trapped in those nets (making the reasonable assumptions, of course, that young, immature shrimp are smaller than mature shrimp and that by “large-mesh nets” is meant net with spaces big enough for young shrimp to pass through them). Thus, there is a strong likelihood that such a requirement would help increase commercial shrimp harvests. This makes C the best answer, and thus the correct answer. A is incorrect. This requirement is most unlikely to bring relief; if anything, it will exacerbate the problem if commercial fishermen, too, start netting young shrimp. The second answer choice is also incorrect. This requirement would presumably make sense if the problem were caused by commercial fishermen catching too many mature shrimp. But the passage clearly indicates that the main problem is that too many young shrimp are netted before they reach maturity. D is not the correct answer choice. Since the problem lies mainly in the numbers of immature, and thus presumably small, shrimp that recreational fishermen catch, preventing those fishermen from catching large shrimp above a certain size is unlikely to provide an effective solution. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Nothing in the passage suggests that recreational fishermen are not already free to move into the open ocean if they own ocean-going craft. And if they are not already free to move into the open ocean, there is still nothing to suggest that they are interested in doing so in large enough numbers to relieve the over-fishing of young shrimp in estuaries.

25.Veteran screenwriters, aiming at creating a 120-page screenplay for a film, usually turn in 1 135-page first draft. As one screenwriter put it, “That gives those in charge of the movie a chance to be

creative when they get the script: at the very least, they can cut 15 pages.” The screenwriter’s statement cited above conveys which of the following propositions? A.Screenwriters for a film are generally not involved in any aspects of filmmaking besides providing the script. B.Seasoned screenwriters are resigned to, and make allowance for, draft scripts being altered by those evaluating them. C.Truly creative screenwriters are too temperamental to adhere to page limits set for their work. D.It takes a special kind of creativity to recognize what is best left out of a film script. E.Even experienced screenwriters cannot be expected to write scripts of consistently high quality throughout. Explanation: The screenwriter’s statement implies an acknowledgement that those evaluating screenplays will want to alter them, and it implies that screenwriters adjust the length of a first draft in order to allow evaluators to make alterations. The second answer choice restates these implications and is the correct answer. A is incorrect. The statement says nothing about whether screenwriters do more than provide a script. C is not correct. The statement says nothing about the temperament of screenwriters, and it gives a reason other than temperament for the length of first drafts. D is incorrect. The statement does not imply that the cuts made by evaluators are always the best cuts that could have been made. The last answer choice is also incorrect. The statement says nothing about the quality of first draft and so does not imply that they are of uneven quality.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT

16.A study attitudes toward prime-time television programs showed that programs with identical rating sin terms of number of people watching received highly divergent marks for quality from their viewers. This additional piece of information could prove valuable for advertisers, who might be well advised to spend their advertising dollars for programs that viewers feel are of high quality. Which of the following, if true, supports the claim that information about viewers’ perceptions of the quality of television programs could be valuable to advertisers? A.The number of programs judged to be of high quality constituted a high percentage of the total number of programs judged. B.Many of the programs judged to be of high quality were shown on noncommercial networks. C.Television viewers more frequently remember the sponsors of programs they admire than the sponsors of programs they judge mediocre. D.Television viewers tend to watch new programs only when those programs follow old, familiar programs. E.Television viewers report that the quality of a television advertisement has little effect on their buying habits. Explanation: C is the correct answer, because advertisers are interested in having their products remembered favorably. By linking viewer perception of program quality with this goal, this choice gives advertisers a reason to care about the quality of programs they sponsor. A is incorrect. That a large portion of programs are judged to be of high quality does not bolster the conclusion that information about viewer perception of program quality will be useful to advertisers. Rather, if a large portion of programs are judged to be of high quality, an advertiser may feel relatively safe in looking only at the ratings. B is incorrect. Programs on noncommercial networks cannot contain ads. Information as to their quality will not help advertisers place ads with programs judged to be of high quality. D is incorrect. This answer makes no mention of either program quality or viewer buying habits and thus neither strengthens nor weakens the connection between the two. The idea

expressed in the answer thus has nothing to do with the importance of program quality to advertisers. The last answer choice is also incorrect. This answer connects the perception of the quality of advertisements to buying habits. It does not determine a connection between perception of the quality of programs and buying habits and thus is irrelevant to any interest advertisers may have in program quality.

17.Each year, fires in the United States cause $ 12 billion in property losses, insurance costs, fire-fighting expenses, and loss of worker productivity. These fire losses are seven times those in Japan on a per capita basis. Which of the following, if true, would be LEAST likely to be a factor contributing to the difference between fire losses in Japan and those in the United States? A.Significantly more money per capita is spent each year on fire-prevention efforts in the United States than is spent on such efforts in Japan. B.The rate of arson, a major contributor to fire statistics in the United States, is almost negligible in Japan. C.Most Japanese homes, unlike those in the United States, are equipped with specially designed and effective fire-extinguishing equipment. D.Foam-based and plastic furniture, less popular in Japan than in the United States, ignites readily and releases twice the heat energy of equivalent weights of natural fibers. E.Japanese fire departments devote proportionately more personnel time to inspection, training, and public education than do United States fire departments. Explanation: The fact that more money per capita is spent on fire-prevention in the United States than in Japan would be a factor likely to contribute to greater fire loss in Japan than in the United States. Therefore, this factor would be very unlikely to contribute to lesser fire loss in Japan, and A is the correct answer. B is incorrect. A greater incidence of arson in the United States would indeed be likely to contribute to greater fire loss in the United States. C is also incorrect. More effective fire extinguishing equipment in more Japanese homes would indeed be likely to contribute to lesser fire loss in Japan. D is incorrect. The greater popularity of foam based and plastic furniture in the United States would indeed be likely to be a factor contributing to greater fire loss in the United States, since such furniture is a greater fire hazard than furniture of natural fibers. E is also incorrect. Greater attention to prevention and training by Japanese fire departments would indeed be likely to contribute to lesser fire loss in Japan.

18..Some would have you believe that the economic problems of Western Europe in the 1980s were caused by the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) oil cartel. This is nonsense. After all, Great Britain was not dependent on OPEC oil and yet Great Britain suffered from the same economic problems that afflicted France and West Germany. The author’s point is made primarily by A.offering Great Britain as a counterexample B.analyzing the economic difficulties of France and West Germany C.pointing out a misconception in reasoning

D.proposing an alternative Explanation E.drawing an analogy between France and West Germany Explanation: The author argues that the economic problems of Western Europe are not caused by the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) oil cartel. This point is made by using Great Britain as an example of a Western European country that is not dependent on OPEC oil but has the same economic problems as France and West Germany. Thus, the first answer choice is the correct answer. B is incorrect. The author’s point (that the economic problems of Western Europe are not caused by the OPEC oil cartel) is made by stating that the economic problems of France and West Germany are the same as those of Great Britain and by pointing out that Great Britain does not depend on OPEC oil as France and West Germany do. This in no way implies what the nature of the economic problems of France and West Germany is. C is also incorrect. The author does not present or discuss the reasoning used to arrive at the conclusion that the OPEC oil cartel has caused the economic problems of Western Europe. Rather, the author presents evidence suggesting that the conclusion cannot be true. The fourth answer choice is not the correct answer. The author presents evidence that the economic problems of Western Europe are not caused by the OPEC oil cartel, but no suggestion is given about the true cause of those economic problems. This last answer choice is also incorrect. The author’s point is made by comparing Great Britain with France and West Germany.

19.Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry: approximately two-thirds of the world’s rubber supply comes from rubber-producing plants and is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots. Any of the following facts could be used as illustrative examples in addition to the example of rubber-producing plants EXCEPT: A.The discovery of the vaccine for smallpox resulted from observing the effect of the cowpox virus on the hands of dairy workers. B.The major source of our pharmaceutical supplies is plants, some of them commonly thought of as weeds. C.Certain antibiotics were originally derived from mold growing on cantaloupes. D.Plastic is a unique product derived from petroleum and petroleum by-products. E.Hamsters and other rodents have played an important role in laboratory tests of medicine for use on humans. Explanation: Examples that would serve the same function as rubber producing plants must involve a situation in which an organism previously thought to be useless is seen to be extremely beneficial for some human endeavor. Petroleum is not an organism and is useful itself and thus is not such an example. Thus, the fourth choice is the correct answer.

Responses one, two, three and five are incorrect. They are examples of situations in which an organism previously thought to be useless is seen to be extremely beneficial for some human endeavor.

20.Superficially, college graduates in 1982 resembled college graduates of 1964; they were fairly conservative, well dressed, and interested in tradition; they respected their parents. But there was a deep-seated difference: a majority of the members of the class of 1982 who were surveyed in their freshman year stated that making a good income was an important reason for their decision to go to college. The statements in the passage, if true, best support which of the following conclusions? A.The concerns of college graduates of 1964 were superficial compared to the financial worries of college graduates of 1982. B.Fewer than half the students of the class of 1964 declared as freshmen that they entered college in order to increase their earning potential. C.Educational background did not play as significant a part in determining income in 1964 as it did in 1982. D.A majority of the members of the class of 1964 revised their reasons for attending college between their freshman year and college graduation. E.College graduates of 1964 were actually less conservative than college graduates of 1982. Explanation: The passage claims that 1982 and 1964 college graduates were similar except that a majority of the 1982 graduates stated during their freshman year that making a good income was an important reason for going to college. This implies that fewer than half of the 1964 class, as freshmen, stated that making a good income was an important reason for going to college. B states a consequence of this implication and is the correct answer. A is incorrect. The passage discusses differences in financial reasons for attending college, as expressed by freshmen in the two classes. Nothing is stated about the financial worries of either class as graduates. Neither is it clear from the passage that financial worries are necessarily implied by the desire to make a good income. C is also incorrect. The passage implies that desire for a good income was a more important reason for the members of the class of 1982 to decide to go to college than for the members of the class of 1964. However, the passage does not provide information on whether a college education provides more, less, or the same impact on income for the 1964 graduates as compared to the 1982 graduates. This fourth choice is incorrect. The passage does not describe or imply any difference in the reasons for attending college between freshman year and college graduation for either class. The last answer choice is also incorrect. The passage states that the 1964 and 1982 college graduates were both firmly conservative. Thus, the passage does not support any conclusion that the two classes differed in degree of conservatism.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT 11-15

11.Therapists find that treatment of those people who seek help because they are unable to stop smoking or overeating is rarely successful. From these experiences, therapists have concluded that such habits are intractable, and success in breaking them is rare. As surveys show, millions of people have dropped the habit of smoking, and many people have successfully managed a substantial weight loss. If all of the statements are correct, an explanation of their apparent contradiction is provided by the hypothesis that A.there have been some successes in therapy, and those successes were counted in the surveys B.it is easier to stop smoking than it is to stop overeating C.it is easy to break the habits of smoking and overeating by exercising willpower D.the group of people selected for the survey did not include those who failed to break their habits even after therapy

E.those who succeed in curing themselves do not go for treatment and so are not included in the therapists’ data Explanation: If, as this choice suggests, the very people who would lead the therapists to view such habits as more tractable do not come for treatment, it is quite understandable why therapists persist in their pessimistic view. At the same time, E is consistent with the survey results. Therefore, the last choice is the correct answer. A is incorrect. Even assuming that this choice is true, no light is shed on why successes should be so rare in therapy, and yet, if the surveys are to be believed, so common overall. B is also incorrect. Since the comparative strength of habits is not an issue in the therapists’ findings or the surveys, it cannot have anything to do with the apparent contradiction; consequently, information about it cannot help resolve that contradiction. C is also not the correct answer choice. If C were true, the survey results would appear rather unremarkable, but the therapists’ findings would be baffling. The apparent contradiction would not be diminished but underscored. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The survey results as reported focus on the numbers of people who have successfully fought a habit, not on the proportion of those who tried to break their habits who succeeded. This answer choice pertains only to the latter and so is essentially irrelevant.

12.“On the whole,” Ms. Dennis remarked, “engineering students are lazier now than they used to be. I know because fewer and fewer of my students regularly do the work they are assigned.” Which of the following identifies a flaw in Ms. Dennis’ reasoning? A.Plenty of people besides engineering students do not work as hard as they should. B.Ms. Dennis does not consider the excuses her students may have for being lazy. C.The argument does not propose any constructive solutions to the problem it identifies. D.The argument assumes that Ms. Dennis’ students are representative of engineering students in general. E.Ms. Dennis does not seem sympathetic to the problems of her students. Explanation: Since the constantly decreasing work output of Ms. Dennis’ students could stem from causes specific to those students, Ms. Dennis is not logically justified in extending her judgment about her own students to engineering students in general. D is a concise statement of the logically flawed assumption Ms. Dennis must be making in so extending her judgment. Thus, this answer choice is the correct answer. A is incorrect. Whether or not other groups resemble engineering students has no bearing on whether or not certain conclusions about engineering students follow logically from certain observations about some engineering students. Thus, Ms. Dennis’ lack of attention to people who are not engineering students is not a flaw in her reasoning. B is also incorrect. Any excuses offered for laziness do not alter it, though they might help us understand it. Ms. Dennis is only concerned with establishing that the laziness of engineering students is a fact; she does not inquire into possible explanations. It is not a flaw of her reasoning as it stands that it addresses the particular concerns it addresses. C is not the correct answer choice. Ms. Dennis’ reasoning is involved in reaching a conclusion on the basis of

certain evidence. It does not go beyond that. This choice concerns itself with matters beyond the ones Ms. Dennis reasons about, and thus cannot be considered a flaw in her reasoning. The last answer choice is also incorrect. The logical merits or flaws of an argument are independent of the emotional attitudes of the person making the argument. Since this choice describes an emotional attitude, it cannot identify a reasoning flaw.

13.The overall operating costs of many small farms are reduced when the farmers of small farms eliminate expensive commercial chemical fertilizers and pesticides in favor of crop rotation and the twice-yearly use of manure as fertilizer. Therefore, farmers of large farms should adopt the same measures. They will then realize even greater total savings than do the small farmers. The argument assumes that A.it is more cost-effective for small farm farmers to eliminate the use of commercial fertilizers and pesticides than it is for large farm farmers to do so B.a sufficient amount of manure will be available for the fields of large farm farmers C.large farm farmers would not realize similar cost benefits by using treated sewage sludge instead of commercial chemical fertilizers D.large farm farmers generally look to small farm farmers for innovative ways of increasing crop yields or reducing operating costs E.the smaller the farm, the more control the farmer has over operating costs Explanation: B is the correct answer choice. It would be impossible to argue reasonably that large farmers should use manure as fertilizer because they would realize even greater savings than the small farmers without also assuming that there is a sufficient amount of manure available for the fields of large farmers. A is not the correct answer choice. The argument implies that it would be more cost effective for large farmers to eliminate commercial fertilizers and pesticides than it would be for small farmers to do so. The third answer is incorrect. No statements are made in the argument concerning treated sewage sludge and no assumption is made about it. D is not the correct answer choice. This statement is not assumed because if it were false—if large farmers seldom or never looked to small farmers for innovative ways of increasing crop yields or reducing operating costs—this would not affect anything relevant to the argument about the total savings that large farmers might gain by adopting new farming practices. E is also not the correct answer choice. It may well be true that the smaller the farm, the more control the farmer has over operating costs. However, with respect to control, the argument only that large farmers have enough control over their farming methods to adopt the recommended measures.

14.Factory workers in Beltania are guaranteed lifetime jobs, bonuses paid on the basis of productivity and corporate profits, and a wage rate that is not attached to a particular job. Paradoxically, these guarantees do not discourage factory owners from introducing labor-saving machinery. Such innovations are to the factory owners’ advantage despite the fact that the owners must protect the wages of their workers.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the introduction of labor-saving machinery is advantageous to factory owners? A.Before a Beltanian Factory worker is hired, he or she must present a record of his or her previous productivity. B.Labor-saving machinery increases productivity, thus yielding profits that more than cover the cost of retraining workers for other jobs. C.The purchase and maintenance of new machinery adds significantly to the final cost of the goods produced. D.Factory workers demand a change of procedure in the routine tasks they perform. E.Limited competition exists among Beltanian factories for consumer markets. Explanation: If the second answer choice is true, introducing labor-saving machinery results in additional profits even if it also requires the retraining of workers. Hence, this answer choice demonstrates the advantages to the factory owners of labor-saving machinery. Thus, B is the correct answer. The first answer choice is incorrect. Productivity in a previous job may relate to productivity in the job for which a worker is hired. However, if the worker’s job is eliminated by new machinery, the factory owner loses the advantage of having been able to select a highly productive worker for that job. There is no indication in this answer choice of what advantage, if any, the owner gains. C is incorrect. Since increased costs, other things being equal, mean decreased profits, this answer choice suggests the change is disadvantageous to the factory owners. D is also incorrect. Changes of procedure may result for those employees whose jobs are eliminated by the introduction of machinery, but would not necessarily result for a substantial number of factory workers. The owners have an advantage only if a substantial number of workers have been satisfied. Thus, this fourth answer choice cannot explain why the change is advantageous. The last answer choice is incorrect. Limited competition might imply that the factory owners will be able to sell their products, even if the price must be raised to cover new machinery as well as wages. Although this does not harm the factory owners, it does not suggest an advantage either.

15.During the day in Lake Constance, the zooplankton D. hyaline departs for the depths where food is scarce and the water cold. D. galeata remains near the warm surface where food is abundant. Even though D. galeata grows and reproduces much faster, its population is often outnumbered by D. hyaline. Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox? A.The number of species of zooplankton living at the bottom of the lake is twice that of species living at the surface. B.Predators of zooplankton, such as whitefish and perch, live and feed near the surface of the lake during the day. C.In order to make the most of scarce food resources, D.hyaline matures more slowly than D. galeata. D.D. galeata clusters under vegetation during the hottest part of the day to avoid the Sun’s rays. E.D. galeata produces twice as many offspring per individual in any given period of time as does D.

hyaline. Explanation: The presence of predators of zooplankton, feeding near the surface during the day, would suggest that D. galeata is consumed at a higher rate than D. hyaline. Therefore, if this choice were true, it would help resolve the apparent paradox that D. galeata grows and reproduces faster than D. hyaline, yet D. hyalian has the greater population. A is incorrect. Nothing is said in the paragraph to show the relevance of the presence of other species of zooplankton to the relative population size of the two species. C is not correct. This information explains the slower growth and reproduction of D. hyaline, which is one aspect of the paradox; but it does nothing to show how D. hyaline can grow and reproduce more slowly and yet have the greater population. D is incorrect. Nothing is said in the paragraph to show the relevance to the paradox of D. galeata’s clustering under vegetation. E is also incorrect. More information on the faster reproduction of D. galeata does not show how, despite faster growth and reproduction, D. galeata has the lesser population.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT Questions 6-10

6.The state with the greatest fraction of its population in urban areas, if the urban areas are considered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas. Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas. If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best supported on the basis of them? A.No state has a smaller fraction of its population in rural areas than California has. B.The current rate of population growth in California’s urban areas exceeds that current rate of population growth in California’s rural areas. C.In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent of the land. D.No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than California has. E.California’s population density is among the highest of all states in the United States. Explanation: The passage states that of all the states, California has the greatest fraction of its population (91 out of 100) living in urban areas. That means only 9 out of every 100 California residents live in rural areas. The greatest fraction of any other states’ population living in urban areas, to be smaller than California’s fraction, must be 90 or fewer out of every 100. That means that, in every other state, 10 or more out of every 100 residents live in rural areas. Since 9 out of every 100 is smaller than 10 or more out of every 100, so A is the correct answer. B is incorrect. In order to decide whether this statement is true, it is necessary to know about rates of population growth. No such information is provided in the passage. The third answer choice is also incorrect. Since 96 percent of the land is outside urban areas, 4 percent is inside urban areas. Thus, 91 percent of the population lives on 4 percent of the land. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not provide enough information to determine whether this statement is true or false. No comparison is made between the amount of land area in California devoted to urban settlement and the amount of land area in other states devoted to urban settlement. E is incorrect. The passage does not provide sufficient information to determine whether this statement is true or false. Information on the actual size of the population as compared to total land area of California and other states would be necessary to make a judgment about population density in these states.

7.A ten-year comparison between the countries of Arudia and Cazonia in terms of crop yields per acre revealed that when only planted acreae is compared, Cazonian yields are equal to 68 percent of Arudian yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow acreage) is compared, however, Cazonia’s yield is 114 percent of Arudia’s yield. From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about Arudian and

Cazonian agriculture during the ten-year period? A.A higher percentage of total agricultural acreage was fallow in Arudia than in Cazonia. B.Arudia had more fallow acreage than planted acreage. C.Fewer total acres of available agricultural land were fallow in Cazonia than in Arudia. D.Cazonia had more planted acreage than fallow acreage. E.Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced. Explanation: If crop yield per planted acre was less in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, yet crop yield per total (planted plus fallow) agricultural acreage was greater in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, there must have been a lower percentage of the total acreage that was left fallow in Cazonia than there was in Arudia. Therefore, the correct answer is A. B is incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Arudia had more or less fallow acreage than planted acreage. C is not correct. Since the comparisons made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether there was more or less fallow acreage in Cazonia than in Arudia. D is also incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia had more or less planted acreage than fallow acreage. The last answer choice is incorrect. Since the comparisons made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.

8.In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase, but at a rate lower than that of the general population. Which of the following statements directly contradicts the information presented above? A.The number of farmers in the general population increased slightly in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880. B.The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the rate of growth of the general population rose simultaneously in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880. C.The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force remained constant in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880. D.The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force decreased from 64 percent in 1850 to 49 percent in 1880. E.The proportion of farmers in the general population increased from 68 percent in 1850 to 72 percent in 1880. Explanation: The passage indicates that the proportion of farmers in the general population decreased from 1850 to 1880. the fifth answer choice says exactly the opposite-that this proportion increased; therefore, it contradicts the passage and is the correct response. A is incorrect. The passage also indicates that the number of farmers increased between 1850 and 1880, and thus agrees with this choice. B is also incorrect. The passage does not tell us about the rate of growth of the labor force. It can be inferred from the passage that the general population grew, but this choice agrees with, rather than contradicts, this conclusion. The choice of C is not the correct answer. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage

alone. The fourth is also incorrect. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage alone.

9.The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of more than $100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries. If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true? A.Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with net income above $ 100 million was earned from foreign sources. B.Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources. C.Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60 percent of all reported taxable income. D.Some of the corporations with net income above $ 100 million reported income from 10 or more countries. E.Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more countries reported net income of more than $ 100 million. Explanation: If 38 tax returns in one category account for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources, and if 200 tax returns in another category account for 60 percent of the same amount, then the two categories must overlap to some extent. Only if the two percentages, added together, amounted to 100 percent or less is there not necessarily any overlap. Here, the two percentages add up to 113 percent. The answer choice that expresses an overlap between the category of corporations with a net income of above $ 100 million and that of corporations with income from 10 or more countries is D, which is thus the correct answer. A is not correct. Whereas corporations with net incomes of above $ 100 million account for more than half of the total taxable income from foreign sources, we cannot tell from the information given what proportion of their own total incomes from all sources is derived from incomes from foreign sources. The second answer choice is incorrect. All we can infer is that 47 percent was reported by taxpayers other than corporations with net incomes above $ 100 million. These taxpayers could be other corporations with somewhat lower incomes. C is not the correct answer choice. The figures of 53 and 60 percent refer to percentages of total taxable income from foreign sources. Neither these nor any other figures in the passage refer to or imply any percentages of all reported taxable income. E, the last choice, is also incorrect. Since there are only 38 corporations with reported net incomes of more than $ 100 million, but 200 taxpayers with income from 10 or more countries, at the very most somewhat less than 20 percent of those 200 taxpayers could report net incomes of more than $ 100 million.

10.The greater the division of labor in an economy, the greater the need for coordination. This is because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers, which results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of supply and

production. There is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies. If all of the statements given are true, the which of the following must also be true? A.Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in planned economies than in market economies. B.There are more specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies. C.The need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies. D.A manager’s task is easier in a market economy than in a planned economy. E.Division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned economies. Explanation: C is the correct answer. If, as the first statement claims, greater division of labor entails a greater need for coordination and if, as the second statement claims, there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies, then it must be true that the need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies. The first choice is incorrect. If the statements are true, then it is possible, and even expected, that disruptions of supply and production are NOT more frequent in planned economies than in market economies. The statements suggest that since there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies, there is potentially a greater number of disruptions in market economies than in planned economies. B is not correct. One would expect there to be fewer, not more, specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies, other things being equal. This is because, according to the statements, there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies and because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The statement lead to the conclusion that a manager’s task would be harder, not easier, in a market economy than in a planned economy. This is because the increased division of labor that exists in a market economy entails a larger number of specialized producers. The last answer choice, E is also incorrect. The statement that division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned economies does not follow from the statements given. The statements imply that such effectiveness is dependent on the amount of coordination available, but no information concerning that amount is given.

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SECTION II: ARGUMENT Questions 1-5

1.One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know something about it. Which of the following is assumed by the argument? A.People can remember a product without having much information about it. B.Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people’s memories. C.Attracting a potential customer’s attention is a simple matter. D.The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes. E.Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product. Explanation: The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw people’s attention to a product and need not provide any substance for people to remember the product. Thus, the passage implies that people can remember a product without having much information about it, and A is the correct answer. B is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw people’s attention to a product, the people are more apt to remember the product. The advertisement is not said to improve people’s memories, only to draw people’s attention so they will use their existing memories. C is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs to do is attract a potential customer’s attention. It does not say how easy or difficult that is. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement but does not suggest that the advertising industry knows little of substance about the product. The last answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that advertisements make false claims about products.

2.Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry: approximately two-thirds of the world’s rubber supply comes from rubber producing plants and is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots. The point of the passage is made chiefly by A.acknowledging the validity of two opposing points of view B.appealing to the emotions of the audience rather than to their intellects C.suggesting a useful perspective for viewing the question raised at the beginning of the passage

D.trying to discredit the view of an opponent without presenting an alternative hypothesis E.generalizing from similar to dissimilar cases. Explanation: The passage suggests that considering the possibility of extinction with an eye toward the possible utility of a previously unvalued species will lead to a different answer to the question than considering the possibility of extinction from a more general perspective. C describes the author’s procedure of suggesting a new perspective and is thus the correct answer. The first choice is incorrect. The author argues that it is important to preserve endangered species without endorsing any opposing point of view. The view attributed to the general public is not accepted; rather, an argument is given to show what that view misses. B is incorrect. The author uses an approach that is primarily factual, and does not seek to arouse the emotions of its audience. D is also incorrect. The author tries to undermine an opposing position by presenting an alternative to it. The last answer choice is incorrect. The generalization about the potential value of life forms whose value was not perceived in advance is supported by an example of a similar case, namely that of rubber plants.

3.Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the Regionalist party because she supports the bill. Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn? A.Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other issues. B.Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment. C.Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed. D.It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new recycling law. E.Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared by the Regionalist party. Explanation: The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill does not imply that all members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement, Ellen may or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports the bill. For the conclusion to be valid, the initial statement would have to read, “All members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law…” Thus, the choice of D makes the relevant logical point. The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at best a piece of background information without being specifically related to the question of whether all Regionalist party members would oppose the bill. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Ellen’s attending programs and distributing literature prepared by the Regionalist party might appear to make it likely that the conclusion is false. But suggesting that the conclusion might be false does not help show why the conclusion is invalidly drawn.

4.Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a person’s birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the year of that

person’s ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be reversed. Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made? A.The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes. B.The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization based on it. C.The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater than the second-to-last digit. D.The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already presupposed. E.The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is greater than five. Explanation: The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good criticism of the generalization would show when the generalization is not true. C does just that and thus is the correct answer. A is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all years that do not end in two zeros. For example, 1970 is a birth year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization is not valid. Since this answer choice is false, it cannot be a good criticism of the assertions. The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the last two digits of the person’s birth year-67-are the same as the last two digits of the year of the person’s ninth birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact exhibit the same principle as the generalization. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference between 1976 and 1967 is nine. The correctness of the first statement depends only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born in 1967 and was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is not presupposed. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Consider birth year 1923. a person born in 1923 would have been nine in 1932 and the generalization holds. So E is false.

5.The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life. The statement presupposes which of the following? A.Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on Earth. B.Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system. C.If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence. D.More than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet. E.It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth. Explanation: In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth to make them suitable for supporting life, the author implicitly rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life. The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another planet is likely to require conditions similar to those on Earth. Therefore, E is the correct answer. A is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the appearance of extraterrestrial life. B is incorrect. The statement implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other planets in our

solar system, but it makes no presupposition absolutely ruling out the possibility that such life exists. The answer choice of C is incorrect. Although the statement suggests that there is the greatest chance for life when physical conditions are appropriate, it leaves open the possibility that no life will exist even with appropriate conditions. D is also incorrect. The statement says that it is possible that more than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet, but it does not presuppose that there are actually any such suns.

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