Hello! I've been following your blog for quite some time now, and have been referencing it whenever I needed help for Shakespeare. Recently I've gotten an assignment to write two paragraphs on "What do you think Shakespeare’s stance on prejudice and discrimination is?", mainly regarding Merchant of Venice. I don't wish to ask for much, except, are there any quotes or specific pieces of evidence that display racism/not-racism? For example, the derogatory use of the term "Jew" for racism and the whole of Shylock's monologue for, uh, not-racism.
I'm planning to write one paragraph for Shakespeare being racist, and one paragraph about Shakes not being racist, if that is of any help. Thank you!
Hello there! Thank you for your question, and for following me. That's a good little assignment you've got there, but I think that interpreting the issue of 'Shakespeare's stance on prejudice and discrimination' as a question about whether or not Shakespeare was racist might not be the best way to reach an interesting and satisfactory answer. For one thing, it commits the fallacy of thinking that presentation means endorsement. Shakespeare's characters are not Shakespeare; his characters being racist doesn't make him racist. This isn't to say one can't argue that Shakespeare was racist, but what his characters say cannot be the only foundation for such an argument.
If you want to understand Shakespeare's point of view on prejudice and discrimination, then it's not enough to look at instances of prejudices and discrimination in the play, you have to think about why he chose to write a play containing both of these stances. Also, the play is so much broader in its representation of discrimination that talking about racism is also a bit of a limitation, especially given that a big part of the prejudice against Jewish people at the time and in the play has to do with religion more than race. The depiction of Portia as an intelligent woman frustrated by what her father's will and social laws will or won't allow her to do is part of the play's vested interest in this issue.
So while it's not wrong to look at how the characters malign Shylock in one paragraph and how Shylock is given that humanising monologue in your second paragraph, I'd urge you to think more about what a play that includes both of these perspectives achieves, and why it's interested in all sorts of discrimination as a whole. Why does Shakespeare show the Christian characters merciless and remorseless to another man just because he doesn't follow the same religion as them? He could have created Christian characters who were kind, generous and gentle in spite of everything Shylock does, but instead Antonio tells Shylock he'd call him a dog again, 'to spit on thee again, to spurn thee, too' (1.3.127). The stereotype of the money-loving Jew is subverted too, because the Christians in this play are just as obsessed with wealth, even if they won't admit it openly. The poetry is what's telling. For Antonio, 'my purse, my person' (1.1.138) are alliteratively, homophonically, almost the same thing, with his love expressed through giving Bassanio money. Bassanio too tells Antonio, 'In Belmont is a lady richly left, / And she is fair and, fairer than that word / Of wondrous virtue' (1.1.161-3): money is the first thing he mentions about Portia, then her looks and only third her qualities. The discrimination and prejudice in this play is all the more starkly expressed because Shakespeare goes out of his way to take away the distinction between 'which is the merchant here, and which the Jew'(4.1.171): little separates them other than the name by which they are referred. Why, when Shakespeare could have written a Jewish villain like Barabas in Marlowe's Jew of Malta, does he create a character like Shylock, who, with all of his vindictiveness, still shows his capacity for love? Shylock's humanity comes through not just in his famous monologue, but in his shock at hearing that Jessica has traded the ring his wife Leah gave him for a monkey, and his sense of his wrongful treatment is present in awareness of the unequal treatment he receives under a law that should promise equity.
There are a couple of posts I wrote in the past, and some by others I'll point you to, which may help you think about some of these questions. They'd be equally helpful if you do choose to answer the way you initially planned, but hopefully they'll raise some interesting questions about this very complicated play:
An old post on antisemitism in the play
A post by a Jewish person which addresses the issue excellently
On terms that are offensive by today's standards
How speeches sometimes go beyond characters
You'll see from these posts that, on the whole, I think that Shakespeare treats sensitive topics with remarkable even-handedness from an empathetic perspective. Though I've never considered The Merchant of Venice a pleasant play, it's one that really interrogates the meaning of prejudice and discrimination by staging a society rife with both. It invites people to come with their expectations of a Jewish stage villain, almost lulls them into a feeling that their expectations are being confirmed and then humanises a character that seemed to be designed to be hated. The fact, then, that the play contains anti-Semitic characters doing and saying hateful things to Shylock and the fact that Shylock has his great speech are both reasons to think that Shakespeare is questioning the role of prejudice and discrimination in a systemically unjust and unequal society.














