Hey, I found this on reddit "The concept of a "secular Jew" really didn't exist at Marx's time- by their standards, he wasn't a Jew because he didn't practice Judaism. And if you read his essay On the Jewish Question, you'll find he was actually very anti-Semitic himself." I know he's considered to be antisemtic, but is is true that back then you where only considered Jewish if you praticed it?
Thanks for asking.
No, it's not true- that Redditor couldn't be more wrong, and by the end of this post, you'll understand why.
Not only did the concept of the secular Jew exist in Marx's time- the status of the secular Jew was the very topic with which Marx was engaging in On the Jewish Question.
Marx's time, based on the years of his birth and death, was from 1818 to 1883.
Several major movements were reshaping secular Jewish identity well before Marx's time:
The Haskalah (Jewish Enlightenment) began in the 1770s, encouraging Jews to engage with secular European culture, science, and languages. This led directly to assimilation and non-observance which was in full swing during Marx's lifetime.
Jewish Emancipation unfolded from the 1790s through the mid-1800s (starting in France in 1791, Prussia in 1812). As Jews gained civil rights, they left ghettos, entered universities, and pursued professional careers. This political and social integration meant breaking from purely religious communal life, essentially creating "secular Jews" by default.
Reform Judaism emerged in the early 1800s to modernize Jewish practice and align it with contemporary European culture. The very existence of this movement shows how widespread the challenges of assimilation and secularization had become.
The Marx family was part of a growing population of non-practicing, assimilated, or secularized Jews.
Marx's father converted to Lutheranism in 1816, two years before Karl was born, partly to advance his legal career in Prussia, but also because there was real pressure to convert if one wanted to assimilate safely.
So by 1844, when Marx wrote On the Jewish Question, the figure of the acculturated, non-practicing Jew, someone defined by society based on ancestry rather than belief, was highly visible and often contentious across Europe.
So what's the essay actually about?
On the Jewish Question was a response to a very specific contemporary debate about Jewish Emancipation, particularly with Bruno Bauer.
By Marx's time, there was a large population of educated, professional Jews who were no longer religiously observant (like his own father), but still universally regarded as Jews.
But if these Jews had abandoned their religious practice, why did they still face legal and social discrimination? What was this lingering "Jewish problem"? Why did people still discriminate against them if they'd given up their religion?
Marx's answer involves a rhetorical move I continue to find repellent. He performs an analogy in which he takes this debate about Jews and redefines it as the economic problem (capitalism) affecting all of society.
He starts with the contemporary stereotype of the non-religious, emancipated Jew as a bourgeois merchant or financier (professions Jews were in because they were allowed to work in these professions). Then he defines the essence of "Jewishness" as the pursuit of money, huckstering (aggressive commerce), and self-interest.
In his own words:
What is the secular basis of Judaism? Practical need, self-interest. What is the worldly cult of the Jew? Huckstering. What is his worldly god? Money…
Then comes the pivot: Marx argues this "Jewish spirit" isn't unique to Jews, it's actually the defining spirit of modern capitalism itself. The "Jewish principle" of profit and self-interest, he claims, has become universal in Western society. The Christian world has become "judaized."
He concludes that the "Jewish problem" is really just capitalism in disguise, then the solution isn't merely political emancipation for Jews but overthrowing capitalism entirely, thereby "emancipating" society from this "Jewish spirit."
Some scholars defend Marx by arguing he was being ironic, critiquing liberal politics rather than Jews themselves, or simply using the common language of his time. But the text's reliance on ugly stereotypes (Jews as money-obsessed hucksters) has led most historians to conclude the essay contains antisemitic elements, regardless of Marx's intent or his support for Jewish civil rights.
So yes, the essay is widely considered antisemitic. Marx relies on ugly stereotypes about Jews and money, even as he tries to universalize them into a critique of capitalism. The fact that he was from an ethnically Jewish family doesn't excuse the rhetoric, it just makes the rhetoric more complex and troubling. He's participating in the very prejudices that made life difficult for the secular, assimilated Jews he's ostensibly discussing, like his own family.
The concept of the "secular Jew" wasn't just present in Marx's time, it was the entire foundation of the debate he was engaging with.
Please take social media commentators (including me) with a whole shaker of salt. Online, confident ignorance often has a way of sounding like actual knowledge.
More:
THE PITY OF IT ALL: A PORTRAIT OF THE GERMAN-JEWISH EPOCH 1743-1933, by Amos Elon, Henry Holt and Co., 446 Pages, $30.00.<br /> <br /> The r
Jews in the North German Confederation are given civil freedoms in 1869. The unification of Germany extends jewish emancipation to Bavaria.
Are there hints about Marx’s thoughts on Judaism in his writing, and if so, what do they say?






