Do you think it’s possible that when addressing Gabriella assaulting Lestat, when they allude to it starting before they were vampires, that the show might’ve just meant the wolf scene and how inappropriately she was being with him? Rather than when he was underage as babystat?
Not trying to lighten it at all. She’s horrible and assault is assault regardless of when it happens. I was just wondering: while their overall abusive dynamic started when he was a child with the witches burning, that the sexual aspect started with the wolves when he was an adult. That in the 306 bar scene Lestat was thinking of the wolf attack, rather than when he was a child. It would for sure still be assault, but not necessarily CSA.
What do you think?
I understand your point.
We don’t know when it started, and I personally believe it started as a child bc Lestat hallucinates himself as a child when his stutter started, which could be a sign of CSA abuse.
It’s implied to be when he was a child as some point, and after the wolves at another, and only when they were vampires at another point. It should not be this way.
It is extremely irresponsible as a show runner to leave it this vague. It a serious topic and should not be open to misinterpretation.
You can see this subject matter handled well in s2 with Armand. You know what happened to him, when it happened and by who. It’s not sexualized or up to interpretation of what it could mean. We understand how it traumatized Armand.
