I don't claim to be a linguistics expert but this is what i got from a quick rabbit hole:
When Old English became Middle English, the negation prefix "ne-" was replaced with "not", which was placed after the verb (a similar structure to how we use expressions like "I haven't the foggiest"). At some point, the verb and negation swapped, so the "not" is now in front of the verb (there was a reason for this but the video i watched didn't tell me it and i'm too lazy to find out lmao). Of course, we know that "I not sit" is completely gramatically incorrect, it should be "I do not sit".
So where does that "do" come from?
This insertion of "do" is known as do-support, or the "dummy do" as the guy on youtube called it, and we can see it in questions ("Do you sit?") as well as negations ("You do not sit") among (hehe) other scenarios.
This is the lovely tree that mr youtube man drew to show this. When we negate, we want to put something on that [T] (tense) bit. The problem is that there's nothing there to put something on. Normally when this happens, we would move the tense over to the [VP] (verb phrase), but the [T] can't get through the negation. We know this because, even though we have "He" as our pronoun, "dance" does not become "dances", because no changes can get through the negation.
So since we've no place to go, we let the dummy do snow, and we replace that [-past] thing with our "do".
Of course, this sentence doesn't make grammatical sense, so we need to change that "do" to "does".
And there we go! I have finally answered your question. Thanks wikipedia and mr youtube man for explaining this to me
In case I forgot anything or got anything wrong here's the video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9YoX-o1w644
tldr: you could have used a contraction if you lived in like the 1400s but not anymore because reasons
also redux if you dont read this imma be really mad because i spent like 40 minutes on this
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