some of you are not cute little puppies..... you're a bastard like scrappy doo
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@tits-n-trix
some of you are not cute little puppies..... you're a bastard like scrappy doo
pick ten people. now bully the weakest one. what do you get? that’s right.
you get bully points.
Spend these at a bully kiosk soon…
im feeling so sensual and nude
exactly like a crocodile
snoopy as gregor samsa
Creates a special glue that tries to keep us together in a world that wants to pull us apart
i love this guy
Employed the use of ma'am in a phone call yesterday when I was trying to toe a touchy conversation and I gotta say for all my years of living in the south I never recognized the utility of "sir" or "ma'am" when ya gotta remain firm in an unfortunate circumstance.
I want all of my mutuals to thrive and be happy
Had a dream there was some release of concept art of the kanker sisters from Ed Edd n Eddy where Lee had straight dark green hair and all three of them wore ed's overshirt and they were drawn a bit more curvy, were less silly, and had a more mature attitude but this was revealed in a clip of a punk music video and ngl, they were kinda killing it.
obsessed w blunt headed tree snakes
This is some Scooby Doo shit XD
I don't think this is possible????
Hello Ryan I am here to help. So the first step is pretty easy: Three cheeseburgers are worth 18, so each one is worth 6. If these are dollars, that's a steal!
From the second equation we get that cheeseburger plus fries-squared is five. Subtracting cheeseburger, which is six, from both sides, we get that fries-squared is negative-one. Math fans will know that there are two solutions to this; either fries are the "imaginary unit" 𝒾 or they are its negative, -𝒾. We'll do the rest of the problem with 𝒾, keeping in mind that at the end we should also take the complex conjugates as solutions.
Finally, we have that cup to the power of fries, minus cup, equals three. Replacing fries with 𝒾, and moving a cup to the other side, we get that cup-to-the-𝒾 is equal to cup-plus-three.
Now, the weird part about this is the cup-to-the-i. The problem with this is that complex exponentiation is technically not a thing. That is to say, there is no one function which is mathematically equal to "input-to-the-power-of-𝒾". In fact, there are infinitely many such functions.
Fortunately, due to reasons that take about six pages to explain (trust me I've done it), there is one particular function that many people have agreed is "the most reasonable one". This is not a mathematical notion, but a human preference. Seeing as this question was presumably written by a human, I am comfortable with using this function.
So, what function is this? Well, given a complex number r∠θ written in polar form (if you don't know what that means don't worry), where -π < θ ≤ π, then (r∠θ)^𝒾 = e^(-θ)∠ln(r).
Applying this to our problem a value r∠θ will be a possible solution for cup if e^(-θ)∠ln(r) = r∠θ + 3. Splitting this into real and imaginary parts, we get two equations: e^(-θ) cos(ln(r)) = r cos(θ) + 3 and e^(-θ) sin(ln(r)) = r sin(θ). We can graph these equations on Desmos:
The possible values of cup are the intersections between the red, green, and purple. There are infinitely many of these which have an angle of around -π/3, and there are two weirdos: One which is a complex number very close to -2.98, and one which is somewhere around -25. The possible values for cup are all of these infinitely many solutions, and also all of their complex conjugates.
They were right, 99% of people can't solve it.
i've actually been working on some formulae to give all possible solutions to complex exponentiation problems recently, so here's my take on this:
let the value of the glass = z, for z ∈ ℂ:
z^(±i) = 3+z
let z = r·e^(iθ) for r,θ ∈ ℝ, -π < θ ≤ π
∴ z = r·e^i(θ+2πn) for all n ∈ ℤ
∴ (r·e^i(θ+2πn))^(±i) = 3+r·e^i(θ+2πn)
distribute powers (apologies for the use of ∓):
r^(±i)·e^(∓(θ+2πn)) = 3+r·e^i(θ+2πn)
convert to the same base:
e^i(±ln(r))·e^(∓(θ+2πn)) = 3+r·e^i(θ+2πn)
split into real and imaginary components:
re: cos(±ln(r))·e^(∓(θ+2πn)) = 3+r·cos(θ)
im: sin(±ln(r))·e^(∓(θ+2πn)) = r·sin(θ)
in effect, all this changes is the restriction on the domain of theta to be between -pi and pi, so you can just ignore that constraint.