May I also say that the assertion that the people who wrote what would become the new testament were definitely jews is also incorrect? The oldest known piece of the New Testament is written in Greek, not in Hebrew (the Ryland's Papyrus), and dates from around 125 CE. This is important in part because we just straight up do not know who wrote it, where it came from, or from what (if any) texts it is transcribing. A Jewish person COULD have written it, but there is no evidence that a Jewish person DID write it. None of the earliest pieces of what would become the New Testament are in Hebrew, and at the very least to me that makes me wonder if the people doing the work were Jewish.
Are there Jewish texts translated into or written in Greek? Absolutely! Do I find it deeply suspicious that, during a time period that deeply focused on wiping Judaism off the map, during Hadrian's extreme and terrifying destruction of the Second Temple, we have pieces of text surfacing that justify erasure and removal of Jewish life? Definitely. Hadrian erected a temple to Jupiter on the former site of the second temple, by the way. When I say "there was a focus on wiping Judaism off the map", I mean it literally.
By 167, there were already persons identified as Christian Bishops. This is also the year that one of them, Melito of Sardis, accused Jewish people of deicide. It took between forty and seventeen years between the estimated recordings of the earliest known pieces of Christian literature for the idea of blood libel and Jews being at fault for the killing of Christ, Christ as a separate being from the Jewish g-d, and Christians being fundamentally different and separate from Jews, to become prominent.
Why, during a time of blood libel and horror, would a Jew write text that implies that Jewish people are at fault for the death of Jesus? Who is a Jew writing about a Jewish Messiah in Greek in Egypt during the 2nd century CE, writing to? If they wanted to convert Jews, why not write in Hebrew?
The story we're talking about here, the one with the table flipping and money changing, is from John, from either the Sinai Bible or one of the copies of the Gospel of John (specifically Uncial 0162), which is contemporaneous to the Sinai Bible. Both were written at some point during the 4th century, and none of the fragments prior to this contain this story. I also specify the Sinai Bible vs the Gospel of John, because the gospel calls the temple a "house of trade", while the Sinai Bible uses the term "den of thieves", and the Gospel of John may be about three decades older than the Sinai Bible, provided the earliest estimated date for the Sinai Bible is accurate. By the point that these pieces of text were both definitely in circulation, intermarriage between Christians and Jews was banned in the Roman Empire and punishable by death, the First Council of Nicaea had decided that Easter would no longer be calculated by the date of Passover (because Jews killed Jesus. No, really, that's the justification), and Constantine I banned Christians from converting to Judaism. Christianity at this point is recognized by the ruling world powers in its own right distinct from whatever Jewish roots it may or may not have had, and it is STAUNCHLY anti-Judaism.
Christianity and Judaism in the fourth century were separate religions. The person who wrote down the story of John 2:13-16, at the very least the versions of the stories used in modern religious contexts, was a gentile.
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