I have a thought. I have the hardest time believing anything that comes from Dumbledore‘s mouth. I’m not saying he’s lying per se. I think he makes a lot of assumptions and because he’s accomplished a lot in his life, he assumes his judgment is always correct.
I was watching Harry Potter Folklore on YouTube and he did a vid on Voldemort's origins and I had a thought. A one that I presume is not gonna jive with a lot of people but I just don't buy it.
I have a hard time believing in most things Dumbledore has said that isn't backed up by a flashback or other source.
Am I calling Albus Dumbledore arrogant? Yes... No... maybe... I don't know. I just don't know, but what I do know is that I don't believe that Merope Gaunt could have dosed Tom Riddle Sr. with Amortentia and I'm going to explain why.
From what I understand, from the books, is that by the time Merope was born the Gaunt family wealth had fully ran out and they were in fact flat broke, owning nothing but a shack and what little was left from the family heirlooms—and because of that I don't believe she would've had the means to buy a love potion from a vender nor did she have the education to brew it herself.
Even for arguments sake, she did manage to do either of the two (which I really don't buy) how would she have gotten Tom Riddle Sr. to get anyway her to consume it? From what I've read of Harry Potter & the Goblet of Fire the groundskeeper describes his father (Voldemort's Paternal grandfather) as being incredibly snobby and T.R. Sr. as being 10 times snobbier than that.
He's like a muggle Lucius. He would never have gone anywhere near anyone that he deems beneath him. He probably would've thought her as uncivilized or assumed she was going to rob him and called on the police.
It would be like that scene in LeMiz where this guy calls the cops on Fontine and would've probably ended the same.
Harry Potter Folklore found it unbelieveable too and suggested that maybe she used the Imperious curse on him to get him to drink the potion. But I don't buy that either.
Why use the love potion, at all, and not just use the Imperious Curse on him this whole time?
Merope had very little magical education and just wouldn't have been able to cast a dark curse. It said that her magic was pretty useless when it came to magic because she was abused so badly by her father and brother. Even with their presence gone that would not have changed much.
So, with both options ruled out, I can only thing of one other explanation. Tom Sr. might've seduced her or/and kept her on the side while he was doing whatever rich British men did around that time. IDK, in my head I see it very much how a rake from Bridgerton lived their life.
It's not exactly unheard of from a man of his status (like a tilted Gentlemen or a member of the Gentry) to fool around with the lower classes before they got married as long as it was kept private and no one heard about it—i.e. high society papers. Hell, many of them even did it while they were married.
I imagine he kept this whole thing going (kinda like Benedict and Sophie) until either his mother/father got wind of it and demanded he stop because of how outraged they were. Or he got married/got bored with her.
Either way it doesn't change much but I can see Mr. & Mrs. Riddle paying big money to send Merope away so no one ever finds out about an illegitimate child being born.
Anyway thanks for reading my theory and if you still believe Dumbledore's words that's ok. You don't have to tell me I'm wrong in the comments. Just take that this is my theory and theories typically aren't canon.