idk which cdd I have but I’ve just been saying did bc I’ve read things abt how certain presentations of alters/my system that I relate to r apparently more common/known in did (according to the haunted self). and the fact that even if I don’t have amnesia in daily life I may have it in the past. oh shit wait. can amnesia count as like of your other alters n not knowing them like having heavy barriers? n like denial and forgetting about it? is that a type of amnesia? does it matter if I say it’s did over osdd? honestly on that topic,, do u think theres any other reason to specifically suspect did instead of osdd1? maybe that’s a silly question bc everyone is different I’m just thinking about how did is apparently more complex than osdd? so maybe there are some differences other than “well did has amnesia and diffrendiayrd eleboratrd parts while osdd may not” I’m sorry if this sounds messy I’m tired but thinking out loud lol
can amnesia count as like of your other alters n not knowing them like having heavy barriers? n like denial and forgetting about it? is that a type of amnesia?
I think you'll have to be more specific about what you're trying to ask here, cause I'm not sure I understand what you mean unfortunately
does it matter if I say it’s did over osdd?
I'm not sure what you mean, why would it? I ended up rambling a lot in this post, oops.
At the end of the day, an OSDD diagnosis depends on the person who is diagnosing you; OSDD isn't its own separate, unique disorder with specific, unique criteria to meet, separate from DID.
Plenty of people get diagnosed with OSDD when they actually fit the criteria for DID better; or diagnosed with OSDD only to then be later diagnosed with DID. I personally haven't seen or heard about people experiencing the opposite way around (first diagnosed with DID, then changed to OSDD), but I'm sure it probably has happened at some point, but the fact I haven't heard about it is probably saying something.
You don't get diagnosed with OSDD because you meet specific criteria for OSDD - you get diagnosed with OSDD because you DON'T meet the specific criteria for any of the other pre-existing dissociative disorders. It's "BECAUSE you don't meet the criteria for THESE other dissociative disorders that you get diagnosed with OSDD" not "you meet the criteria for OSDD, so you have OSDD." There isn't criteria to meet in the first place! Do you meet the full criteria to be diagnosed with another dissociative disorder? If not, then you get diagnosed with OSDD, and there can be many reasons for this.
This is literally all of the "criteria" you have to meet to be diagnosed with OSDD in the DSM-5, followed by EXAMPLES of reasons why the person was diagnosed with OSDD over any other dissociative disorder. The key word is EXAMPLES - this isn't criteria for a diagnosis of OSDD! Just examples.
Sometimes it's because the system doesn't experience amnesia and they truly don't experience amnesia, but "not experiencing amnesia" is not a specific OSDD criteria that you have to meet, it's just a specific reason why a clinician would give as to why the person doesn't meet the criteria for any other dissociative disorder.
A diagnosis that means that you do not meet the full criteria for any of the pre-existing dissociative disorder, such as DID, depersonalization/derealization disorder, etc.
A diagnosis that is often unique to each individual who gets diagnosed with this condition (because there are many reasons why someone might be diagnosed with OSDD and sometimes those reasons are highly specific)
A specific, unique, separate disorder
A disorder that is "less severe" or "less complex" than DID
A "less severe" "version" of DID
"DID with missing criteria"
A disorder that gets diagnosed when your amnesia "isn't bad/severe enough"
A disorder that gets diagnosed when your amnesia is minimal
A disorder that gets diagnosed when your alters aren't distinct enough
A disorder that gets diagnosed when you don't have it that bad
A disorder that gets diagnosed if you don't struggle "bad enough" or if you're "not that affected" by your symptoms
A disorder that gets diagnosed if you experience your alters as "moods/mood states/brain states/etc." or if you experience that "same stream of consciousness" no matter what alter is fronting, etc. etc.
I feel like people forget as well that OSDD is not just "DID but with missing criteria" it means that you don't meet the criteria for ANY OTHER DISSOCIATIVE DISORDER. It doesn't mean that you're "basically a DID system, but with criteria missing." So when it comes to OSDD, it's important to remember that it specific includes all other dissociative disorders, not just DID. It's specifically saying that you don't meet the diagnostic criteria of ANY OTHER dissociative disorder, not just DID.
All of this is why it's confusing to me when people (not @ the anon) try to put hard distinctions between DID and OSDD-1, or when people try to lay out some kind of key distinctions between the two?
I also have a lot of other problems when it comes to the way people try to differentiate OSDD from DID.
How are you certain you don't experience amnesia? If you definitely know for a fact that you don't experience amnesia, I'm so curious how people know, how they figure it out. 'Cause amnesia is so fucking tricky and you can be so unaware of amnesia, it genuinely hides itself in.. A genuinely horrifying way.
What does it mean to truly not experience any kind of amnesia to meet the criteria for DID? I've always wondered this, mostly because my amnesia is quite severe (I'm very unaware of it, but I know it's quite severe, much more severe than I think) and I have no idea what it would be like, feel like, or look like to be a system without any amnesia at all whatsoever, and how you know you don't experience it and to then confirm in some way that you really don't experience amnesia. So I wonder what a system with OSDD without amnesia looks like/feels like. And how they know for sure they don't experience amnesia.
Because dissociative amnesia from DID includes a wide, wide, wide variety of experiences that are oftentimes really difficult to be aware of, in order for a diagnosis of OSDD-1 to depend on how much amnesia you experience or whether or not the person experiences amnesia, we would need to have a clearly outlined explanation of what amnesia is for BOTH disorders, what experiences "count" as amnesia/how "much" amnesia "counts for BOTH disorder, and I just don't think that kind of thing is really.. Possible. In order to claim that OSDD means that you don't meet the amnesia criteria for DID, we would need to understand what that amnesia criteria even IS for DID. And unfortunately amnesia is incredibly difficult to even notice sometimes and sometimes people will go years not knowing they have amnesia until an alter comes forward with traumatic memories that other alters don't remember. We'd need to know what really Counts as amnesia when it comes to DID, and if certain experiences count and others don't, why and why not?
"OSDD means minimal amnesia" is also included under this and it's something that really annoys me and is just not true. OSDD does not mean you experience "minimal" amnesia. How much amnesia you experience, how often your amnesia affects you, whether or not your amnesia feels like teleportation or not, whether or not your amnesia is something that largely affects your life or only affects it sometimes - these things have nothing to do with whether or not you have OSDD over DID. I want this idea to die already.
"OSDD means your alters aren't elaborated enough to be fully individual people":
I have so much to say about this.
I hate this! I hate this so much! It's spreading misinformation about OSDD AND DID and this belief has been used CONSTANTLY to discredit people's experiences. This belief has made people doubt that I have DID; it has made people try to push OSDD as a label for me over DID even though it has never felt fitting for me, and it has been used to discredit so many other people I've known too.
Repeat after me: your alters not being separate individuals with their own names, ages, distinct personalities, etc. DOESN'T MEAN YOU HAVE OSDD. THIS IS A NORMAL EXPERIENCE FOR DID SYSTEMS AND IT DOESN'T MEAN YOU HAVE OSDD INSTEAD OF DID. IT DOESN'T MEAN YOU AREN'T A SYSTEM AT ALL. IT DOESN'T MEAN THAT YOU HAVE IT "LESS BAD" THAN OTHER SYSTEMS. IT DOESN'T MEAN THAT YOUR ALTERS ARE NOT AND CANNOT BE THEIR OWN PEOPLE.
And on that note. This kind of thing has also always greatly confused me because the concept/idea of alter elaboration is a muddy way and well who is the one measuring this? Alter elaboration, I think, is not a linear spectrum where one end is "not elaborated at all" and the opposite end is "totally separate person." If OSDD means "less elaborated alters", I question what that means and who is measuring it - how will we measure alter elaboration in an accurate way in order to properly assess whether or not someone's alters are "elaborated enough" for a DID diagnosis?
Do you see why this is confusing and makes no sense to me?
If we are to say that OSDD is diagnosed PURELY based off of the fact that the person's alters are not elaborated enough for a DID diagnosis, we need to ask:
WHAT is alter elaboration? We need to define alter elaboration and know and understand what it is.
HOW do we measure alter elaboration? After we know what it is, we need to be able to "measure" it. How do you measure such a vague and fuzzy concept as "alter elaboration"?
HOW MUCH elaboration is 'required' to meet a DID diagnosis over an OSDD diagnosis?
WHY do we consider (xyz) experiences to be more elaborated than other experiences?
WHY are we measuring alter elaboration in this way - are there other ways to measure alter elaboration, and if so, is there any specific reason why we went this one way to measure it, rather than any other ways? Is that a good reason? A valid reason? Why? How do we know? Is it accurate and helpful and useful for differentiating DID from OSDD?
WHY are these things considered to be more elaboration over these things?
Because alter elaboration is a confusing, jumbled, muddy mess.
Some alters will have distinct body language, but they don't know they're an alter or anything like that, so they have no name or specific, unique personality, it might just seem like the individual person just has different body language when that alter fronts. Is that elaborated enough? Why, or why not?
What about a system with alters who have their own unique names and personalities, but otherwise have minimal differences - mostly share the same beliefs, feelings, opinions, likes, dislikes, etc. Are they elaborated enough to meet DID criteria? Why or why not?
If we are to assume that "OSDD means alters who aren't elaborated enough for a DID diagnosis" where the most elaborated alters means that two or more alters have unique and distinctly different voices, body language, names, personalities, etc. - the most overt system you can think of - then millions upon millions of people would have their diagnosis completely changed.
It would also mean many OSDD systems would get diagnosed with DID instead. A lot of the OSDD systems I've met fall on the more "overt" end of the spectrum where their alters are quite distinct with their own unique senses of self, names, personalities, etc. I've met more OSDD systems who match the stereotypes than I have DID systems - both diagnosed and self-diagnosed.
Everything I explained in this post is why when people try to ask me about the difference between DID and OSDD, I don't know what to tell you other than "it just means you don't meet the criteria for any other dissociative disorder."
I think about all of these things a lot because the way people treat DID and OSDD as if they're distinct, separate, unique disorders greatly confuses me and I myself don't understand the huge differences between OSDD-1 and DID, other than what I've read in the DSM-5 and other knowledge I've picked up. I would love to read more about OSDD, but it's near impossible to ever come across anything about OSDD specifically.
I think a lot about the concept of "alter elaboration" and how such a thing would be measured; why some experiences might be considered more elaborated than others; how the entire concept of it is greatly subjective and greatly dependent on your environment and how others perceive you - sometimes a highly elaborated alter might not be considered highly elaborated to one person, but be considered highly elaborated to another person.
I would like to make a few things clear as well:
I'm not saying that OSDD systems don't have their own unique, separate, and distinct experiences that other systems may not relate to.
OSDD as a diagnosis includes more than just OSDD systems, OSDD-1.
I'm not saying that OSDD is a pointless, useless diagnosis, or that people with OSDD are just "DID systems who don't realize" or "DID systems who think they have OSDD" or any other combination of similar phrasing. It's incredibly frustrating when people try to assert OSDD as a label onto me and I'd never want to do the same for OSDD systems the other way around (try to assert the DID label onto them when they don't feel it fits, try to convince them that they have DID and not OSDD, etc.).