perfectly lovely take, but also:
that passage isn't about lesbians at all and never has been
torah is a living entity. a lot of the so-called "old testament" was written in parts, re-written, edited, and recut, over hundreds of years before we ever got a "standard" edition. from an archaelogical/paleographic standpoint, there simply is no "original text", and we cannot be sure of who added what bits and for what purposes at what times.
that said, that passage is, based on the research i've done, almost definitely a second-temple era (so, under babylonian occupation) addition meant as anti-pederasty, anti-hellenic and, as more of an afterthought, pro-fornicating-with-your-wife, propaganda. unfortunately, it is a very real historical truth that early jewish society AS IT IS REMEMBERED BY THE DOCUMENTS LEFT BEHIND BY THE RULING CLASS AT THE TIME was, like.... extremely reactionary anti-hellenic (and later, anti-roman). like. anything the greeks were doing, the temple authorities wanted their subjects to do the exact opposite. in all likeihood, this was because a lot of hebrews were kind of vibing with and integrating with hellenic culture, and the temple authorities felt they were losing their grip - especially of those in early diaspora - and felt they needed to double down and draw harder lines between hebrew and hellenic culture. i say "unfortunately" mostly because this biblical anti-hellenic sentiment, quite frankly, is directly to blame for a large amount of institutionalized homophobia throughout western history. the thing is: those authorities and the culture they created and influenced was never the sum of us. the specific kohanim who were sanctioned by the babylonian state to opperate israel as a puppet state over a thousand years ago are not, in fact, representative of every jew even in the ancient world they lived in, and certainly we should not consider them the sole arbiters of moral authority for all time!!!!
back to the "living document": if we're not expected to follow complex tax codes related to a bygone set of kingdoms from hundreds and hundreds of years ago, why would we be expected to follow moral codes from that same society? (this is a question i would LOVE to demand of some medieval rabbis, frankly. THE KINGDOM(S) IS GONE, WHY ARE WE PRETENDING WE CAN OR SHOULD STILL FOLLOW ITS LAWS, WHY ARE WE PRETENDING HASHEM WANTED US TRAPPED IN A BUBBLE AND ENCASED IN AMBER, WHY ARE WE PRETENDING THAT THE RULING CLASS OF A MINOR EPOCH IN LITERAL ANCIENT HISTORY GETS TO DECIDE WHAT WE DO NOW! WHY ARE WE PRETENDING THEIR EDITS ARE ANY CLOSER TO THE WORDS OF HASHEM THAN LITERALLY ANY ONE OF US! ARE WE NOT A NATION OF PRIESTS?!!??! AAAAAaaaughhhh ok i'm calm i'm good i'm calm)
man goys really do not understand at all how we interact with our texts At Alllll
That Passage In Leviticus is a handful of lines away from one that's traditionally understood to prohibit the eating of shrimps. why aren't these people more fixated on why some jews eat shrimp. at least get some new material damn
areudirty
romaincrisis
izzy806
turnnoffyourmind
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