I'm asking this in good faith so please engage respectfully.
Does anyone else think that the "audiobooks count as reading" debate is an attempt to villainise the people who disagree because they want to normalise the fact that the a lot of US adults are functionally illiterate and an illiterate population is easier to oppress?
I'm not saying people who read physical media are somehow morally superior to those who consume audiobooks at all, but to say they are equivalent is insincere imo when we need to acknowledge the political importance of a population being able to read policies and laws.




























